Certification Questions et réponses Microsoft: 三月 2014

2014年3月31日星期一

Meilleur Polycom 1K0-001 test formation guide

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Code d'Examen: 1K0-001
Nom d'Examen: Polycom (Polycom Certified Videoconferencing Engineer (PCVE))
Questions et réponses: 161 Q&As

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NO.1 What allows you to detect audio distortion? (Select 2 answers.)
A. audible sound quality
B. measured audio signal level
C. measured background noise level
D. digital signal processor clock level
Answer: AB

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NO.2 What does Automatic Gain Control (AGC) do? (Select 2 answers.)
A. It turns up the volume to the far-end.
B. It selects among multiple microphones.
C. It turns down the volume to the far-end.
D. It builds the volume to the near-end microphone.
Answer: AC

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NO.3 What correctly describes the term "half duplex" as it refers to audio in a videoconference?
A. Only one site of a conference is heard at any given time.
B. Only one person at a time is heard speaking from any given room.
C. Only one site of a conference is allowed to speak at any given time.
D. Only one person at a time is allowed to speak in a given room attending a conference.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which device connects to mic-level input?
A. an amplifier
B. a microphone
C. an audio mixer
D. a sound pressure meter
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which describes frequency response?
A. The ability to determine frequency content of a signal.
B. The ability of a device to respond to amplitude changes.
C. The ability of a circuit to define operating frequency limits.
D. The ability of a device to operate within defined frequency limits.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which describe sub-band and wideband Acoustic Echo Cancellers (AECs)? (Select 3 answers.)
A. Wideband AECs treat the audio as one continuous segment.
B. Sub-band AECs treat the audio as a single 3.1 kHz segment.
C. Wideband AECs require additional processing to reduce echo artifacts.
D. Sub-band AECs divide the audio into small segments and process each segment independently.
Answer: ACD

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NO.7 How is noise measured? (Select 2 answers.)
A. by volume
B. by distance
C. by amplitude
D. by impedance
Answer: AC

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NO.8 Which describe training as it applies to Acoustic Echo Cancellers (AEC)? (Select 2 answers.)
A. Training occurs regardless of the events occurring in a given room.
B. Training is independent of room audio components and gain settings.
C. Training is the process by which an AEC adapts to the room acoustic system.
D. Training can be accomplished through an explicit process such as white noise or pink noise.
Answer: CD

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NO.9 Which describe the role room acoustics play regarding acoustic echo cancellation? (Select 2
answers.)
A. People moving around in a room change the acoustic paths presented to a microphone.
B. Fans, heaters, and air conditioners add background noise to the room, changing the room
acoustic paths.
C. Hard room surfaces act as reflectors for sound, causing multiple acoustic paths from loudspeaker
to microphone.
D. Heavy drapes and acoustic absorbers remove acoustic paths and therefore cause problems for
acoustic echo cancellers.
Answer: AC

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NO.10 Which correctly describes reverberation and echo? (Select 2 answers.)
A. Echo is a coherent, distinct carry-on of sound.
B. Reverberation is irrelevant to conferencing audio.
C. Reverberation is long, distinct acoustic reflections.
D. Reverberation is an incoherent, diffuse carry-on of sound.
E. Echo is short, diffuse acoustic reflections that linger after the original sound has stopped.
Answer: AD

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NO.11 What correctly describes echo as it relates to acoustic echo cancellations?
A. The sound one hears when the far-end is talking and one tries to talk at the same time.
B. The sound of the room reverberation as picked up by the local microphones, amplified and
returned to the far-end.
C. The result of sound bouncing off the walls in the room caused by the person speaking in that
room being picked up by the microphones.
D. The sound of the far-end being returned to themselves, caused by the room microphones picking
up the audio from the room loudspeakers.
Answer: D

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NO.12 How many bits make up frames in T1 framing?
A. 180
B. 193
C. 248
D. 251
Answer: B

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Le matériel de formation de l'examen de meilleur Oracle 1Z0-046

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-046
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Database 10g: Managing Oracle on Linux for DBAs)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 You logged in as user user1 on a Linux machine. You need to check which groups you belong to.
Which commands will you use? (Choose two.)
A.id
B.uname -G
C.cat /etc/passwd
D.cat /etc/group
E.cat .bash_profile
ANSWER: AD

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NO.2 ho.sh is an executable shell script. You executed the following command that leads to an error:
$ strace -o /tmp/ho.out ./ho.sh
strace: exec: Permission denied
What could you do to execute the command successfully in the next attempt?
A.Provide the shell reference with the command.
B.Remove the shell reference present inside the shell script.
C.Execute the command as the root operating system user.
D.The extension for the output file should be changed to .log.
ANSWER: A

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NO.3 You executed the ipcs -m command to list all the shared memory segments in your Oracle server.
View the Exhibit exhibit1 that shows the output of this command.
Later, you executed the same command to check the shared memory segments.
View the Exhibit exhibit2 that shows the output of this command.
Why is the large shared memory segment not listed in the second Exhibit?
A.The Oracle database instance is shut down.
B.The swap space has been increased in the system.
C.The Oracle database instance is configured in shared server mode.
D.The large pool size set for the Oracle database instance is reset to zero.
ANSWER: A

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NO.4 Which command is used to identify the kernel version number?
A.which
B.whatis
C.uname -r
D.ulimit -m
E.chkconfig
ANSWER: C

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NO.5 Which command would you use to identify the users that belong to the oradba group?
A.id -G
B.uname -g
C.grep

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-045
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle database 10g:new features for Oracle8i ocps)
Questions et réponses: 156 Q&As

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NO.1 You performed an incomplete recovery and opened the database with the RESETLOGS option.
The LOG_ARCHIVE_FORMAT parameter is set to 'ora_%t_%s_%r.log'. Which statement regarding
the archived redo log files, created in an earlier incarnation of the database, is true?
A.The archived redo log files cannot be used.
B.The archived redo log files will be overwritten.
C.The archived redo log files are deleted automatically.
D.The archived redo log files should be moved to some other location.
E.The archived redo log files are still maintained because the file names are unique.
Correct:E

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NO.2 You define the Warning threshold for the tablespace usage metric for the USERS tablespace to
be 35%. Because of this, several alerts are being raised. After observing this, you decide to
increase the Warning threshold and clear all old alerts related to tablespace usage metric. Where
would you find the information about cleared alerts?
A.the alert.log file
B.the DBA_ALERT_HISTORY data dictionary table
C.the DBA_ALERT_ARGUMENTS data dictionary table
D.the DBA_TAB_STATS_HISTORY data dictionary table
E.the DBA_OUTSTANDING_ALERTS data dictionary table
F.the V$ACTIVE_SESSION_HISTORY data dictionary table
Correct:B

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NO.3 View the Exhibit. You want to unload data from the ORDERS, ORDER_ITEMS, and PRODUCTS
database tables to four OS flat files by using the External Table Population method. To achieve
this objective, you execute the command shown on the Exhibit. After successful execution of the
command, you find that only two files have been created and not four. Which option do you need
to change to achieve your objective?
A.TYPE
B.LOCATION
C.PARALLEL
D.DEFAULT DIRECTORY
E.ORGANIZATION EXTERNAL
Correct:C

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NO.4 Examine this startup script called startmydb.sql: CONNECT myid/mypwd AS SYSDBA STARTUP
EXIT In Oracle8i, you could have executed this script by invoking Server Manager with the
command: svrmgrl @startmydb.sql Which alternative command could you use to run the
startmydb.sql script with SQL*Plus to start your Oracle 10g database?
A.sqlplus @startmydb.sql
B.sqlplus -Sstartmydb.sql
C.sqlplus -S @startmydb.sql
D.sqlplus /NOLOG @startmydb.sql
Correct:D

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NO.5 Which three file types are managed by Data Pump jobs? (Choose three.)
A.out files
B.log files
C.alert files
D.SQL files
E.error files
F.dump files
Correct:B D F

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NO.6 You decide to activate the resumable space allocation feature for all your database users by
enabling the feature in a logon trigger. This causes a statement that requires space beyond a
user's quota _____.
A.to wait indefinitely for the quota to be increased, regardless of the timeout setting for other space
allocation problems.
B.to fail because quota limits do not activate the resumable space allocation feature
C.to wait in a suspended state until the quota is increased or until the timeout value is reached
D.to invoke the default trigger that resets user quota, if there is free space in the related tablespace
Correct:C

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NO.7 Identify four uses of the Oracle Scheduler. (Choose four.)
A.Enables you to set idle time limits for a resource plan.
B.Enables you to schedule job execution based on time.
C.Enables you to execute jobs in a clustered environment.
D.Enables you to assign priorities to the consumer groups.
E.Enables you to map a consumer group to an Oracle user.
F.Enables you to create a job that makes use of saved programs and schedules.
G.Enables you to periodically execute operating system script files located on the same server as the
database.
Correct:B C F G

Oracle   1Z0-045   1Z0-045 examen   1Z0-045 examen   1Z0-045

NO.8 Which two statements regarding unusable indexes are correct? (Choose two.)
A.You can set SKIP_UNUSABLE_INDEXES to true to skip unusable indexes.
B.You can check the alert log file to get a message recorded about unusable indexes.
C.You do not need to set any parameter because unusable indexes are skipped automatically.
D.Your Data Definition Language (DDL) statement shows a warning message when an index is made
unusable.
Correct:A B

Oracle   1Z0-045   1Z0-045 examen   1Z0-045 examen   1Z0-045

NO.9 Which three files can be managed using an ASM Instance? (Choose three.)
A.Data files
B.Audit files
C.Trace files
D.Export files
E.Alert log files
F.Archived log files
G.Change tracking files
Correct:A F G

Oracle   1Z0-045   1Z0-045 examen   1Z0-045 examen   1Z0-045

NO.10 Examine the following commands of Data Pump to import objects to new non-existent users
hr1 and oe1. $ expdp system/manager schemas = hr,oe directory = EXP_DIR dumpfile = export.dat
include = table $ impdp system/manager schemas = hr1,oe1 directory = EXP_DIR dumpfile =
export.dat remap_schema = hr:hr1, oe:oe1 Which objective would be achieved by the above
command sets?
A.expdp will fail because no path has been defined for the dumpfile.
B.expdp will succeed but Impdp will fail because users do not exist.
C.impdp would create two schemas called hr1 and oe1 and copy the schema objects to the new users.
D.impdp would create two schemas called hr1 and oe1 and import tables owned by hr and oe schemas to
hr1 and oe1 schemas, respectively.
Correct:B

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NO.11 You want to retain the job entries for the last five days and purge all job entries from the job log
that are older than five days. Select the command that will enable you to do the job.
A.EXECUTE DBMS_SCHEDULER.PURGE_LOG( log_history => 5, which_log =>'JOB_LOG');
B.EXECUTE DBMS_SCHEDULER.PURGE_LOG();
C.EXECUTE DBMS_SCHEDULER.PURGE_LOG( log_history => 5, job_name => 'JOB_LOG');
D.EXECUTE DBMS_SCHEDULER.PURGE_LOG( log_history => 5, which_log => 'WINDOW_LOG');
Correct:A

Oracle   1Z0-045   1Z0-045 examen   1Z0-045 examen   1Z0-045

NO.12 You have three production databases, HRDB, FINDB, and ORGDB, that use the same ASM
instance. At the end of the day, you execute the following command on the ASM instance to shut
down: SQL> shutdown immediate; What is the result of executing this command?
A.All the instances, including the ASM instance, are shut down in the ABORT mode.
B.The ASM instance is shut down, but the other instances are still running.
C.The ASM instance is still functional, but the other instances are shut down.
D.All the instances, including the ASM instance, are shut down in the IMMEDIATE mode.
E.HRDB, FINDB, and ORGDB instances are shut down in the ABORT mode and the ASM instance is
shut down in the IMMEDIATE mode.
F.HRDB, FINDB, and ORGDB instances are shut down in the NORMAL mode and the ASM instance is
shut down in the IMMEDIATE mode.
Correct:D

Oracle   1Z0-045   1Z0-045 examen   1Z0-045 examen   1Z0-045

NO.13 Which process performs the rebalance data extent movements across ASM disk groups in
ASM?
A.Checkpoint (CKPT)
B.System Monitor (SMON)
C.ASM Rebalance (ARBn)
D.Process Monitor (PMON)
E.ASM Background (ASMB)
F.ASM Rebalance Master (RBAL)
Correct:C

Oracle   1Z0-045   1Z0-045 examen   1Z0-045 examen   1Z0-045

NO.14 You need to ensure that the database users should be able to use the various flashback query
features in order to go back in time by four hours. What would you do to achieve this? (Choose
two.)
A.set SQL_TRACE=True
B.set UNDO_RETENTION=14400
C.set FAST_START_MTTR_TARGET=240
D.set LOG_CHECKPOINT_INTERVAL=240
E.set DB_FLASHBACK_RETENTION_TARGET=14400
F.issue ALTER DATABASE FLASHBACK ON; command
G.set the RETENTION GUARANTEE clause for the undo tablespace
Correct:B G

Oracle   1Z0-045   1Z0-045 examen   1Z0-045 examen   1Z0-045

NO.15 When WORKAREA_SIZE_POLICY is set to AUTO, the work areas are sized to accomplish which
two goals? (Choose two).
A.To tune memory using the existing *_AREA_SIZE parameters.
B.To allocate memory to work areas in order to optimize throughput only.
C.To allocate memory to work areas in order to optimize response time only.
D.To allocate memory to work areas in order to optimize both throughput and response time.
E.To ensure that the overall size of the PGA will never exceed the value of PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET.
Correct:D E

Oracle   1Z0-045   1Z0-045 examen   1Z0-045 examen   1Z0-045

NO.16 Examine the statement: SQL> CREATE TABLESPACE user_data 2> EXTENT MANAGEMENT
LOCAL 3> SEGMENT SPACE MANAGEMENT AUTO; Which two assumptions must be true for this
statement to execute successfully? (Choose two.)
A.Oracle Managed Files are used for this instance.
B.The USER_DATA tablespace is managed using FET$/UET$ tables.
C.The database will manage the free space of segments in the tablespace using a bitmap.
D.Space within segments in the USER_DATA tablespace is managed with freelists.
Correct:A C

Oracle   1Z0-045   1Z0-045 examen   1Z0-045 examen   1Z0-045

NO.17 While observing database statistics, you find that the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR)
snapshots are being purged after each day. You want the snapshots to be purged on a weekly
basis. Which two options would you use to increase the purge interval? (Choose two.)
A.Enterprise Manager
B.DBMS_JOB.INTERVAL
C.DBMS_SCHEDULER.CHANGE
D.DBMS_SCHEDULER.INTERVAL
E.DBMS_WORKLOAD_REPOSITORY.MODIFY_SNAPSHOT_SETTINGS
Correct:A E

Oracle   1Z0-045   1Z0-045 examen   1Z0-045 examen   1Z0-045

NO.18 You need to create a schedule that will run a job on the second Friday of each month. What
should the repeat interval of the schedule be set to?
A.FREQ = MONTHLY; BYDAY = 2FRI;
B.FREQ = MONTHLY; BYDAY = FRI2;
C.FREQ = MONTHLY; BYDAY = -2FRI;
D.FREQ = MONTHLY; BYDAY = FRI(2);
Correct:A

Oracle   1Z0-045   1Z0-045 examen   1Z0-045 examen   1Z0-045

NO.19 You have three temporary tablespace groups named G1, G2, and G3 in your database. You are
creating a new temporary tablespace as follows: CREATE TEMPORARY TABLESPACE TEMP1
TEMPFILE '/u1/data/temp1.dbf' SIZE 10M TABLESPACE GROUP ''; Which statement regarding the
above command is correct?
A.It will create the tablespace TEMP1 in group G1.
B.It will create the tablespace TEMP1 in group G3.
C.It will not add the tablespace TEMP1 to any group.
D.It will create the tablespace TEMP1 in the default group.
E.It will throw an error with message 'specified group is not available'.
F.It will create a new group with a system-generated name and add the tablespace TEMP1 to it.
Correct:C

Oracle   1Z0-045   1Z0-045 examen   1Z0-045 examen   1Z0-045

NO.20 Which statements are true regarding the new Persistent Configuration feature in RMAN?
(Choose two.)
A.It allows you to set the retention period of backups.
B.It remembers the last backup command you used so that you can reschedule it easily.
C.It enables you to store your Channel attribute settings in the Recovery Catalog with each script.
D.It enables you to store the settings for Channel attributes so that you do not have to specify them in
each backup or restore command.
Correct:A D

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-241
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (PeopleSoft Application Develper I: PeopleTools and PeopleCode)
Questions et réponses: 192 Q&As

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NO.1 View the Exhibit.
Select the page that most likely uses this subpage.
A.
A.
A
B.
C
D
Answer: D

certification Oracle   certification 1Z0-241   1Z0-241 examen   certification 1Z0-241

NO.2 What type of PeopleCode looping construct will loop a specified number of times?
A.For
B.While
C.Do While
D.Do Until
E.Repeat-For
Answer: A

Oracle examen   certification 1Z0-241   certification 1Z0-241   1Z0-241 examen

NO.3 On the Process Scheduler Request page, you have to define the output type for your job or process.
Which three statements are true regarding the process output type? (Choose three.)
A.An output type that is selected for a job at the main job level carries through to the job items.
B.When an output type is selected for a process at the process definition level, it can be changed.
C.An output type that is selected for a job at the main job level does not carry through to the job items.
D.An output type that is selected for individual job items overwrites the output type that is entered for the
parent job.
E.An output type that is selected for individual processes or jobs that are attached to a job cannot override
the tput type that is entered for the parent job.
F.An output type that is selected for a process at the process definition level overwrites the output type in
the Process Scheduler Request page, and the Type drop-down list box in the Process Scheduler Request
page becomes unavailable.
Answer: ADF

Oracle   1Z0-241   certification 1Z0-241   1Z0-241

NO.4 Select the three properties that you can maintain in a PeopleSoft record definition. (Choose three.)
A.Triggers
B.PeopleCode
C.Column order
D.Record field length
E.Query Security record
F.Prompt Security record
Answer: BCE

Oracle   1Z0-241   certification 1Z0-241   certification 1Z0-241

NO.5 Select the most efficient way to determine the effect of modifying a definition.
A.Examine the SQL in the PeopleTools tables.
B.Use the XREF reports and visually examine the modifications.
C.Use the Find Definition Reference utility in Application Designer.
D.Use the Cross Reference utility in the PeopleTools, Utilities folder.
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-241   1Z0-241   certification 1Z0-241

NO.6 For the Employee Expenses application, a PeopleCode program could be placed either on the
EMPLOYEE record or on the EMP_EXPENSE component. You decide to place it on the component.
Which is a valid reason for choosing to place the program on the component instead of the record?
A.The program updates multiple database tables.
B.The program validates data across multiple records.
C.Component PeopleCode executes before record PeopleCode, so it is more efficient.
D.The record definition is used on several components, but this program should run only on this
component.
E.The program initializes fields on the search page, and the search record is associated with the
component.
F.The component contains several record definitions and you do not want to duplicate the code in each
record.
G.Component PeopleCode is more reusable because component PeopleCode is available for execution
on other components.
Answer: D

Oracle examen   1Z0-241   1Z0-241   1Z0-241 examen   certification 1Z0-241

NO.7 When considering key structure, which three options are mutually exclusive? (Choose three.)
A.Key
B.Search Key
C.Descending Key
D.Alternate Search Key
E.Duplicate Order Key
Answer: ADE

certification Oracle   1Z0-241   1Z0-241   1Z0-241   certification 1Z0-241

NO.8 Select three changes to a record definition that require you to rebuild the SQL table. (Choose three.)
A.You change the label of a key field.
B.You deselect the Search Key check box.
C.You change the length of a non-key field.
D.You deselect the Alternate Search Key check box.
E.You change an ascending key to a descending key.
Answer: CDE

Oracle examen   1Z0-241   certification 1Z0-241   1Z0-241   1Z0-241 examen

NO.9 Select the record definition that is configured correctly.
A.
B,
C.
D.
Answer: C

Oracle   certification 1Z0-241   1Z0-241 examen   1Z0-241 examen   1Z0-241 examen   1Z0-241 examen

NO.10 Which two PeopleCode events are part of the field action event set? (Choose two.)
A.FieldEdit
B.SystemEdit
C.FieldDefault
D.FieldFormula
E.FieldChange
F.RecordDefault
Answer: AE

certification Oracle   1Z0-241   1Z0-241   certification 1Z0-241   1Z0-241 examen

NO.11 Select the two field types that should be placed at the end of a PeopleSoft record definition. (Choose
two.)
A.Image
B.Prompt
C.Character
D.Attachment
E.Long character
F.ImageReference
Answer: AE

Oracle   certification 1Z0-241   1Z0-241 examen   1Z0-241

NO.12 Select the three true statements regarding search keys. (Choose three.) A.Search key fields are
indexed.
A.Search key fields are indexed.
B.Search key fields appear on the search page.
C.A field can be a search key even if it is not a key.
D.Selecting the Search Key option automatically selects the List Box Item option.
E.If an existing key field is changed to a search key, you must alter or rebuild the table.
F.The search key property is irrelevant if the record definition is not used as a search record.
Answer: ABD

Oracle   1Z0-241   1Z0-241 examen

NO.13 Select the two properties of a summary page. (Choose two.)
A.It is display-only.
B.It contains only level zero.
C.It contains no related fields.
D.It references one record definition.
Answer: AC

Oracle   1Z0-241   1Z0-241

NO.14 Select the three statements that are true about search records. (Choose three.)
A.Search records build the search page for the component.
B.Search records are referenced only at level zero in the component.
C.Search records rarely reference views; they are usually SQL tables.
D.Search records populate level zero on all pages that are in the component.
E.Search records provide a high-level key to the primary records that are referenced in the component.
Answer: ADE

Oracle examen   1Z0-241   1Z0-241

NO.15 View the Exhibit.
Based on this Build dialog box, select the two options that are true. (Choose two.)
A.When you click the Build button, the TS_EMP tables are created.
B.When you click the Build button, nothing happens to your database.
C.When you click the Build button, the TS_EMP tables may lose existing data.
D.When you click the Build button, the TS_INSTSCHD_VW view is created.
E.When you click the Build button, Application Designer generates a script file.
Answer: BE

Oracle   certification 1Z0-241   1Z0-241   1Z0-241   certification 1Z0-241

NO.16 Examine this PeopleCode snippet
Local Rowset &RS_Level0, &RS_Level1;
Local Row &Row_Level0, &Row_Level1;
Local Record &Rec_EMPLOYEE;
Local Field &Fld_ROLE;
&RS_LEVEL0 = GetLevel0();
&ROW_LEVEL0 = &RS_Level0.GetRow(1);
&RS_LEVEL1 = &ROW_LEVEL0.GetRowSet(SCROLL.DEPT);
&ROW_LEVEL1 = &RS_LEVEL1(1);
&REC_EMPLOYEE = &ROW_LEVEL1.EMPLOYEE;
&FLD_EMPID = &REC_TASKRSRC.EMPID;
&ID = &FLD_EMPID.Value;
Can the code given above be replaced with the following statement?
&ID = GetField().Value
A. No. The record must be specified.
B.No. The row and record must be specified.
C.Yes, if the code is placed on the current row
D.Yes, if the code is placed on the EMPID field.
E.Yes, if the code is placed on the EMPLOYEE record.
Answer: D

certification Oracle   1Z0-241   1Z0-241

NO.17 Select the three true statements about PeopleSoft field definitions. (Choose three.)
A.All PeopleSoft field definition names are in uppercase.
B.Date, Time, and DateTime fields all have a fixed length.
C.When you work with Number and Signed Number field types, the sum of integer and decimal positions
cannot
D.Altering an existing field definition's default label can have consequences at both the record definition
level and the page definition level.E.For a Long Character field, enter a field length of 256 to enable the
database platform to determine the maximum length of the field.
Answer: ABD

Oracle   1Z0-241 examen   certification 1Z0-241   1Z0-241

NO.18 View the Exhibits.
Based on this page layout and page order, select the two true statements about this page definition.
(Choose two.)
A.The TS_EMP_REVIEW page is saved without error.
B.The TS_EMP_REVIEW page is saved with a related field error.
C.The TS_EMP_REVIEW page contains a parent/child design error.
D.The TS_EMP_REVIEW page is saved with a duplicate record field warning.
Answer: CD

Oracle   certification 1Z0-241   1Z0-241   1Z0-241 examen

NO.19 View the Exhibit.
As the component processor loads a component, it executes PeopleCode programs according to buffer
allocation rules.
Each row in the table represents a PeopleCode program and its associated definition, scroll level, and
event. In what order will the programs execute?
A.A, B, C, D, E
B.C, A, D, E,B
C.C, E,A, D, B
D.E, C, A, B, D
E.E, D, C, B, A
Answer: D

Oracle examen   certification 1Z0-241   certification 1Z0-241   1Z0-241 examen

NO.20 View the Exhibit.
You create this record definition and use Application Designer to complete a successful SQL build. Select
the four true statements regarding the SQL build. (Choose four.)
A.At least one index is created.
B.Related language tables are updated.
C.Data is written to the system catalog tables.
D.The DATE field is designated as NOT NULL.
E.The REVIEW_DAYS field is designated as NOT NULL. F.The prefix PS_ is inserted at the beginning of
the table name.
Answer: ACEF

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Code d'Examen: 1Z1-052
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Database 11g: Administrator I )
Questions et réponses: 188 Q&As

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NO.1 View the Exhibit and examine the attributes of an undo tablespace.
In an OLTP system, the user SCOTT has started a query on a large table in the peak transactional hour
that performs bulk inserts. The query runs for more than 15 minutes and then SCOTT receives the
following error:
ORA-01555: snapshot too old
What could be the reason for this error?
A.The query is unable to get a read-consistent image.
B.There is not enough space in Flash Recovery Area.
C.There is not enough free space in the flashback archive.
D.The query is unable to place data blocks in undo tablespace
Answer: A

Oracle   1Z1-052   1Z1-052

NO.2 You have set Tablespace Full Metrics Threshold values for the USERS tablespace as follows:
Warning (%): 90
Critical (%): 95
Which background process is responsible for issuing alerts when the threshold is crossed?
A.System monitor (SMON)
B.Process monitor (PMON)
C.Memory manager process (MMAN)
D.Manageability Monitor process (MMON)
Answer: D

Oracle   1Z1-052 examen   certification 1Z1-052   1Z1-052   1Z1-052

NO.3 Examine the following statement that is used to modify the constraint on the SALES table:
SQL> ALTER TABLE SALES MODIFY CONSTRAINT pk DISABLE VALIDATE;
Which three statements are true regarding the above command? (Choose three.)
A.The constraint remains valid.
B.The index on the constraint is dropped.
C.It allows the loading of data into the table using SQL *Loader.
D.New data conforms to the constraint, but existing data is not checked.
E.It allows the data manipulation on the table using INSERT/UPDATE/DELETE SQL statements.
Answer: ABC

Oracle   1Z1-052 examen   1Z1-052   1Z1-052

NO.4 Which two statements are true about Shared SQL Area and Private SQL Area? (Choose two.)
A.Shared SQL Area will be allocated in the shared pool.
B.Shared SQL Area will be allocated when a session starts.
C.Shared SQL Area will be allocated in the large pool always.
D.Private SQL Area will be allocated in the Program Global Area (PGA) always.
E.Shared SQL Area and Private SQL Area will be allocated in the PGA or large pool.
F.The number of Private SQL Area allocations is dependent on the OPEN_CURSORS parameter.
Answer: AF

Oracle examen   1Z1-052   1Z1-052 examen   1Z1-052

NO.5 Which two statements about the background process of the database writer are true? (Choose two.)
A.It is possible to have multiple database writers in an Oracle instance.
B.It writes dirty buffers, if any, to data files whenever a checkpoint occurs.
C.It writes dirty buffers, if any, to data files whenever a transaction commits.
D.It writes dirty buffers, if any, to data files before the log writer (LGWR) writes.
Answer: AB

Oracle   1Z1-052   certification 1Z1-052   1Z1-052

NO.6 While observing the index statistics, you find that an index is highly fragmented, thereby resulting in
poor database performance. Which option would you use to reduce fragmentation without affecting the
users who are currently using the index?
A.Validate the index structure using the ANALYZE...INDEX command.
B.Rebuild the index using the ALTER INDEX..REBUILD ONLINE command.
C.Change the block space utilization parameters using the ALTER INDEX command.
D.Deallocate the unused space in the index using the ALTER INDEX..DEALLOCATE UNUSED command.
Answer: B

Oracle   1Z1-052   certification 1Z1-052

NO.7 Observe the information in the columns:
1. The SGAa. Text and parsed forms of all SQL statements
2: The cursor stateb. Run-time memory values for the SQL statement, such as rows retrieved
3: User-session datac. Security and resource usage information
4: The stack spaced. Local variables for the process
Which option has the correct match between the memory areas and their contents?
A.1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a
B.1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a
C.1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
D.1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c
Answer: C

Oracle examen   certification 1Z1-052   1Z1-052

NO.8 Note the following functionalities of various background processes:
1. Record the checkpoint information in data file headers.
2: Perform recovery at instance startup.
3: Cleanup unused temporary segments.
4: Free the resources used by a user process when it fails.
5: Dynamically register database services with listeners.
6: Monitor sessions for idle session timeout.
Which option has the correct functionalities listed for a background process?
A.Archiver Process (ARCn): 1, 2, 5
B.System Monitor Process (SMON): 1, 4, 5
C.Process Monitor Process (PMON): 4, 5, 6
D.Database Writer Process (DBWn): 1, 3, 4
Answer: C

Oracle examen   1Z1-052 examen   1Z1-052   1Z1-052   1Z1-052   1Z1-052

NO.9 View the Exhibit and identify the component marked with a question mark.
A.Checkpoint (CKPT)
B.Process Monitor (PMON)
C.Archiver Processes (ARCn)
D.Recoverer Process (RECO)
E.Memory Manager process (MMAN)
Answer: A

Oracle   1Z1-052   1Z1-052 examen

NO.10 Open the database.
Identify the correct sequence of steps?
A.1, 2, 4, 3, 5, 6
B.2, 4, 3, 5, 6; 1 not required
C.4, 5, 6, 2, 3; 1 not required
D.5, 2, 3, 4; 1 and 6 not required
Answer: A

certification Oracle   certification 1Z1-052   1Z1-052
6. Note the following points describing various utilities in Oracle Database 11g:
1. It enables the high-speed transfer of data from one database to another.
2: It provides a complete solution for the backup, restoration, and recovery needs of the entire database.
3: It enables the loading of data from an external file into an Oracle database.
4: It provides a tape backup management for the Oracle ecosystem.
Which point describes Oracle Secure Backup?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
E.1, 2, and 4
F.1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: D

Oracle   certification 1Z1-052   1Z1-052

NO.11 Identify the memory component from which memory may be allocated for:
1. Session memory for the shared server
2: Buffers for I/O slaves
3: Oracle Database Recovery Manager (RMAN) backup and restore operations
A.Large Pool
B.Redo Log Buffer
C.Database Buffer Cache
D.Program Global Area (PGA)
Answer: A

Oracle examen   certification 1Z1-052   1Z1-052 examen   1Z1-052

NO.12 View the Exhibit and examine the privileges granted to the SL_REP user.
The EMP table is owned by the SCOTT user. The SL_REP user executes the following command:
SQL> GRANT SELECT ON scott.emp TO hr;
Which statement describes the outcome of the command?
A.The command executes successfully.
B.The command produces an error because the EMP table is owned by SCOTT.
C.The command produces an error because SL_REP has the GRANT ANY OBJECT PRIVILEGE without
ADMIN_OPTION.
D.The command produces an error because SL_REP does not have the SELECT privilege with
GRANT_OPTION on the EMP table.
Answer: A

Oracle   certification 1Z1-052   1Z1-052

NO.13 Which two statements are true about the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR)? (Choose two.)
A.All AWR tables belong to the SYSTEM schema.
B.The AWR contains systemwide tracing and logging information.
C.The snapshots collected by the AWR are accessible through data dictionary views.
D.The snapshots collected by the AWR are used by self-tuning components in the database.
Answer: CD

Oracle   1Z1-052   1Z1-052

NO.14 Your test database is running in NOARCHIVELOG mode. Which statement is true regarding the type of
backups that can be performed on the database?
A.You can perform online whole database backups.
B.You can perform offline whole database backups.
C.You cannot perform schema-level export/import operations.
D.You can perform the backup of only the SYSTEM tablespace when the database is open.
Answer: B

Oracle examen   1Z1-052   1Z1-052 examen   1Z1-052   1Z1-052   1Z1-052 examen

NO.15 The database instance is currently using SPFILE. View the Exhibit and examine the error that you
received while running the DB Structure Integrity check.
Given below are the steps to recover from the error in random order:
1. Shut down the instance, if not already done.
2: Copy one of the remaining control files to a new location.
3: Change the value of the CONTROL_FILES initialization parameter to correspond to the new location of
the control files.
4: Start up the database instance to the NOMOUNT stage.
5: Recover the database to the point of failure of the control file.

NO.16 Note the functionalities of various background processes:
1. Perform recovery at instance startup.
2: Free the resources used by a user process when it fails.
3: Cleanup the database buffer cache when a process fails.
4: Dynamically register database services with listeners.
5: Monitor sessions for idle session timeout.
6: Cleanup unused temporary segments.
7: Record the checkpoint information in control file.
Which option has the correct functionalities listed for a background process?
A.Checkpoint (CKPT): 1, 2, 5
B.System Monitor (SMON): 1, 6
C.Process Monitor (PMON): 4, 6, 7
D.Database Writer (DBWR): 1, 3, 4
Answer: B

Oracle   1Z1-052   1Z1-052 examen

NO.17 You have executed this command to change the size of the database buffer cache:
SQL> ALTER SYSTEM SET DB_CACHE_SIZE=2516582;
System altered.
To verify the change in size, you executed this command:
SQL> SHOW PARAMETER DB_CACHE_SIZE
NAME TYPE VALUE
------------------- ----------- ------------------
db_cache_size big integer 4194304
Why is the value set to 4194304 and not to 2516582?
A.because 4194304 is the granule size
B.because 4194304 is the standard block size
C.because 4194304 is the largest nonstandard block size defined in the database
D.because 4194304 is the total size of data already available in the database buffer cache
Answer: A

Oracle   1Z1-052 examen   certification 1Z1-052   certification 1Z1-052

NO.18 Which is the correct description of a pinned buffer in the database buffer cache?
A.The buffer is currently being accessed.
B.The buffer is empty and has not been used.
C.The contents of the buffer have changed and must be flushed to the disk by the DBWn process.
D.The buffer is a candidate for immediate aging out and its contents are synchronized with the block
contents on the disk.
Answer: A

certification Oracle   1Z1-052   1Z1-052   1Z1-052

NO.19 You have issued a SHUTDOWN ABORT command to bring down your database instance. Consider
the steps that will be performed later when you open the database:
1. SGA is allocated.
2: Control file is read.
3: Redo log files are read.
4: Instance recovery is started.
5: Background processes are started.
6: Data files are checked for consistency.
7: Server parameter file or the initialization parameter file is read.
Which option has the correct order in which these steps occur?
A.7, 1, 5, 2, 3, 6, 4
B.1, 2, 3,7, 5, 6, 4
C.7, 1, 4, 5, 2, 3, 6
D.1, 7, 5, 4, 2, 3, 6
Answer: A

certification Oracle   1Z1-052   1Z1-052   certification 1Z1-052

NO.20 These are points that describe the contents of different memory components:
1. Descriptive information or metadata about schema objects that are queried by using SQL statements
2: The run-time area for data manipulation language (DML) or data definition language (DDL) statements
3: Results of SQL queries and PL/SQL functions
4: Executable forms of SQL cursors, PL/SQL programs, and Java classes
5: The information necessary to reconstruct changes made to the database by a transaction
Which of these will be stored in the Shared Pool if the necessary configurations are done?
A.1 and 2
B.2 and 5
C.1, 3, and 4
D.3, 4, and 5
E.1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: C

Oracle examen   1Z1-052   1Z1-052   1Z1-052

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-238
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (R12 Oracle: install,Patch and Maintain Oracle Applications)
Questions et réponses: 165 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the default value of ?
A.APPS_
B.APPS_
C._
D._
E.APPS_
Answer: D

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NO.2 You just brought the middle tier back after a hardware problem has been fixed. Oracle Applications
now experience problems with an entire product group of forms (fnd), which includes the sign-on form.
You decide that you will generate the forms files in AD Administration to see whether this will fix
theproblem.
You answered the prompts from the utility as follows:
1. Do you want to generate Oracle Forms using your current character set? (Yes)
2. Do you want to regenerate Oracle Forms PL/SQL library files? (Yes)
3. Do you want to regenerate Oracle Forms executable files? (Yes)
4. Do you want to regenerate Oracle Forms menu files? (Yes)
5. Enter the list of products, or enter 'all' [all]: (fnd)
6. Do you want to generate specific form objects for each selected product? (Yes)
7. Enter libraries and menus to generate, or enter 'all' [all]: (APPCORE.pll, the main library)
8. Enter forms to generate, or enter 'all' [all]: FNDSCSGN.fmx
The utility finished with no errors in the log file.
What is the outcome of running the adadmin utility?
A.All forms in the product group fnd now render with errors.
B.All forms in the product group fnd now render without errors.
C.All forms but one in the product group fnd now render with errors.
D.All forms but one in the product group fnd now render without errors.
Answer: C

Oracle   certification 1Z0-238   1Z0-238   1Z0-238

NO.3 AD Administration contains a utility named Maintain Snapshot Information. Which statements
correctly describe the functionality of this utility? (Choose all that apply.)
A.You can create a copy of an existing snapshot.
B.You can delete the current view snapshot.
C.You can create a list of the current view and named snapshots stored in your system.
D.You can export an existing snapshot to a file for storage or to another system.
E.You can update the current view snapshot with any changes to the snapshot since the last update.
Answer: ACDE

certification Oracle   1Z0-238   1Z0-238

NO.4 The Oracle Applications R12 database administrator (DBA) runs the "Recreate grants and synonyms
for APPS schema" task by using the adadmin utility when grants or synonyms are missing from the
database.
Which three causes are responsible for this? (Choose three.)
A.incomplete database migrations (exports or imports)
B.patch and administrative sessions that failed to run successfully to completion
C.invoking PL/SQL routines to maintain multilingual tables by adding missing, untranslated rows
D.installing or maintaining Oracle Applications R12 E-Business Suite underlying database components or
options such as Replication
Answer: ABD

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NO.5 While working with Web forms an application user sometimes comes across a performance issue. The
initial screen takes too long to appear with the Web form screen, showing the status "Downloading JAR
files..." for a long time.
Identify the reasons for this. (Choose two.)
A.It always takes time to load the Web forms.
B.An older version of Sun J2SE plug-in is installed on the Desktop tier.
C.JAR files for the Forms client applet are downloaded automatically the first time it is used.
D.The browser will automatically retrieve new JAR files if they have changed on the application tier.
E.The Internet Explorer browser security level should be set as "Low" for the zone that contains the
Oracle Application Release 12 Web pages.
Answer: CD

Oracle   1Z0-238   1Z0-238   certification 1Z0-238   1Z0-238

NO.6 What are the two possible sequences of worker status while a job is being completed by a worker?
(Choose two.)
A.Waiting => Assigned => Running => Completed
B.Assigned => Waiting => Running => Completed
C.Waiting => Assigned => Running => Failed => Fixed, Restart => Restarted => Completed
D.Assigned => Waiting => Running => Failed => Fixed, Restart => Restarted => Completed
E.Waiting => Assigned => Running => Failed => Fixed, Restart => Restarted => Running => Completed
Answer: AC

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NO.7 In which three cases is it most effective to run validation on the APPS schema in the Oracle
Applications R12 E-Business Suite setup? (Choose three.)
A.before performing an export or import
B.after a patch or multiple patches are applied
C.immediately after an upgrade or after applying a maintenance pack
D.after converting to multiple organizations or multiple reporting currencies
E.whenever you receive a run-time error that suggests that a problem is caused by the AD_DDL package
Answer: BCE

Oracle examen   certification 1Z0-238   1Z0-238   1Z0-238   certification 1Z0-238

NO.8 You run the AD Administration utility and select the Relink Applications programs.
You answered the following questions during the utility run:
Do you wish to proceed with the relink [Yes]? (You answer Yes.)
Enter the list of products to link ("all" for all products) [all]? (You answer "ad." )
Do you want to generate specific executables for each selected product [No]? (You answer Yes.)
AD Administration can relink your Oracle Applications programs with debug
information. Oracle recommends that you do not relink your programs
with debug information unless asked to do so by Oracle Support Services.
Do you want to relink with debug information [No]? (You answer No.)
What is the next question asked by adadmin?
A.It gives you a list of all executables to choose from.
B.It gives you the list of "ad" executables to choose from.
C.It gives you the list of all executables except "ad" to choose from.
D.It asks no question. It displays the message "Review the messages above, then press [Return] to
continue."
Answer: D

Oracle examen   1Z0-238   1Z0-238 examen   1Z0-238

NO.9 When does the FND_INSTALL_PROCESSES table get created in the Oracle Applications R12
E-Business Suite database?
A.whenever the AD Controller utility is used
B.when AutoPatch, AutoUpgrade, or AD Administration programs process jobs
C.during the upgrade to R12 E-Business Suite from the earlier version of Oracle Applications
D.when the R12 E-Business Suite database is created in a Real Application Clusters (RAC) setup
E.during the R12 E-Business Suite installation and, more specifically, at the time of the database APPS
schema creation
Answer: B

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NO.10 During installation, the Rapid Install process creates ______ that are used to start and stop the server
processes on the database tier.
A.JServer load balancers
B.cost-based optimizers
C.database resource managers
D.session-persistent load balancers
E.database-tier server process scripts
Answer: E

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NO.11 You want to apply a patch on your Oracle Applications system. Before doing this, you want to view the
files that are new, changed, and ignored while applying the patch.
Which feature of the Patch Wizard would help you accomplish this?
A.Patch Filters
B.Patch Impact Analysis
C.Recommended Patches
D.Patch Information Bundle
Answer: B

Oracle   1Z0-238   1Z0-238   certification 1Z0-238

NO.12 Which two statements are true if you choose the "Recreate grants and synonyms for APPS schema"
task option from the adadmin utility? (Choose two.)
A.This option re-creates grants on some packages from APPS to SYSTEM.
B.This option re-creates grants and synonyms for the APPLSYSPUB schema.
C.This option re-creates grants and synonyms for the code objects of the APPS schema to the base
product schemas.
D.This option spawns parallel workers to re-create grants and synonyms linking sequences and tables in
the base product schemas to the APPS schema.
Answer: BD

Oracle   1Z0-238   1Z0-238   certification 1Z0-238   1Z0-238

NO.13 What are the two occasions when it is appropriate to run "Compile APPS schema" by using the AD
Administration utility in the Oracle Applications R12 E-Business Suite environment? (Choose two.)
A.during the Oracle Applications R12 E-Business Suite upgrade process
B.when custom packages are moved to the APPS schema and need to be compiled
C.after enabling the multiple reporting currencies in the Oracle Applications R12 E-Business Suite
environment
D.after enabling the multiorganization functionality in the Oracle Applications R12 E-Business Suite
environment
E.when encountering invalid objects in the SYS and SYSTEM schemas in the Oracle Applications R12
E-Business Suite database
Answer: AB

Oracle   certification 1Z0-238   1Z0-238

NO.14 After the successful installation of Oracle Applications Release 12, environment files are created.
Which environment file is used to identify and describe third-party and custom applications linked with
Oracle Applications?
A.the context file
B.the devenv.env file
C.the fndenv.env file
D.the adovars.env file
E.the adconfig.txt file
Answer: B

Oracle   1Z0-238   certification 1Z0-238   1Z0-238

NO.15 As part of the cloning process, the Applications DBA needs to copy the application tier file system to the
target system.
Which step is NOT a part of this process?
A.Shut down the application tier server processes.
B.Log on to the target system application tier nodes as the oracle user.
C.Copy the APPL_TOP directory from the source node to the target node.
D.Copy the directory from the source node to the target node.
E.Copy the directory from the source node to the target node.
F.Copy the directory from the source node to the target node.
G.Copy the <806 ORACLE_HOME> directory from the source node to the target node.
Answer: B

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NO.16 In your Oracle Applications R12 E-Business Suite implementation, the database is corrupt. To resolve
it, the database Java Virtual Machine (JVM) was reloaded. Identify the type of problem that may occur
and the related correct solution.
A.Problem: Many invalid objects are found in the APPS schema.
Solution: Run the "Validate APPS schema" task by using the adadmin utility.
B.Problem: All Oracle Applications Java classes are missing.
Solution: Run the "Reload JAR files to the DB" task by using the adadmin utility.
C.Problem: The Application screen display does not come up with one of the installed language
characters.
Solution: Run the "Convert Character set" task by using the adadmin utility.
D.Problem: The Application window does not show any of the Accounts Receivables data.
Answer: B

Oracle examen   1Z0-238   1Z0-238

NO.17 You suddenly start receiving errors indicating that there are numerous Java files in the database that
are corrupted and cannot be run. You determined that you must reload the Java Virtual Machine (JVM) to
fix the errors.
In addition to reloading the JVM, what Oracle database utilities, if any, do you need to run and why?
(Choose all that apply.)
A.Compile the Menu information to restore Java menu files to the application forms.
B.Reload JAR files to the database because after reloading the JVM, the Java class files would be
missing.
C.Compile the APPS schema because after the JVM has been reloaded, APPS permissions need to be
reestablished.
D.None of the Oracle database utilities need to be run because by reloading the JVM, all corrected Java
files are corrected with the new files loaded during this process.
Answer: B

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NO.18 The AD Administration task utility "Compile APPS Schema" is similar to the "Validate APPS Schema"
task, except that instead of just producing a list of invalid objects, it compiles invalid objects using multiple
workers in an attempt to move them back to the valid object state.
This task is most often run when custom packages are moved into the APPS schema, and during the
upgrade process.
The "Compile APPS Schema" task can be toggled to compile all objects or just the invalid objects.
Choose three correct benefits of using this task. (Choose three.)
A.increases run-time performance in the applications
B.corrects all corrupt schema package bodies and headers
C.finds truly invalid objects before users get a run-time error
D.allows new custom or patched packages to be immediately validated
Answer: ACD

Oracle   1Z0-238 examen   1Z0-238

NO.19 Where can you find the generated report file after running the "Validate APPS schema" task in the
Oracle Applications R12 E-Business Suite setup?
A./admin/.lst
B./admin/out/.lst
C./admin/out/.lst
D./admin//out/.lst
E./admin//out/.lst
Answer: E

Oracle   1Z0-238   certification 1Z0-238   1Z0-238

NO.20 Identify two ways in which you validate the APPS schema in the Oracle Applications R12 E-Business
Suite setup. (Choose two.)
A.Run the /appsutil/scripts//advrfapp.sh script.
B.Run the AD Administration utility in noninteractive mode with the default file having
menu_option=VALIDATE_APPS.
C.Run the AD Administration utility in interactive mode, and then select Compile/Reload Applications
Database Entities menu > Compile APPS Schema option.
D. Use SQL*PLUS / @$AD_TOP/admin/sql/advrfapp.sql .
Answer: BD

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NO.21 You experience report-error problems in the Inventory module after applying a patch to the same
module.
You run the AD Administration utility, and select the Generate Application Files menu. Because you have
report problems, you decide to run Generate Report Files.
You answered the following questions during the utility run:
1. Do you want to generate Oracle report objects using the current character set? (You answer Yes.)
2. Do you want to regenerate the Oracle reports PL/SQL library files? (You answer No.)
3. Do you want to regenerate Oracle reports executable files? (You answer Yes.)
4. For which products do you want to generate Oracle report objects? (You answer "all reports in INV.")
After you run the AD utilities, most reports in Inventory run with no errors. However, you still experience
errors with two reports.
Which two statements explain why the two reports still run with errors? (Choose two.)
A.You have reports in a different language.
B.You have reports with external library files.
C.You have custom reports in a custom directory.
D.You have reports from a different module being referenced on the Inventory report menu.
Answer: B

Oracle   1Z0-238   certification 1Z0-238   1Z0-238   1Z0-238

NO.22 As a database administrator (DBA), you have been trying to apply a maintenance patch, but it has
failed to
run successfully to completion. You check the AD Administration log file for an error. The log file reveals
several entries that are generic errors about the inability of patch codes to have access to product
packages from the GL product modules.
You remember that one of the occasions when you should run the "Recreate Grants and Synonyms" AD
Administration utility is if the patch and the administrative sessions fail to run successfully to completion.
You have found one occasion to use this utility in the case above. Now choose three other occasions
when you would run this process again. (Choose three.)
A.after custom development
B.when applying a patch to the operating system
C.after applying a patch to the Applications technology stack
D.in case of incomplete database migrations (exports or imports)
E.when installing or maintaining underlying database components or options such as Replication
Answer: ADE

Oracle   1Z0-238   1Z0-238 examen

NO.23 If the patch is running in Pre-Install mode, where would the patch history files be stored in Oracle
Applications R12 configured on a UNIX operating system?
A.$AD_TOP/admin
B.$APPL_TOP/admin
C.$TEMP/runInstaller
D.$APPL_TOP/admin/
E.$COMMON_TOP/admin/
Answer: D

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NO.24 Identify the patch that you apply to upgrade the Oracle Applications system from the 11.5.5 version to
the 11.5.10 version.
A.diagnostic patch
B.stand-alone patch
C.maintenance pack
D.product family release update pack
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-238   1Z0-238   certification 1Z0-238   1Z0-238 examen

NO.25 Before you apply a patch, you read the readme.txt file.
One of the areas of Oracle Applications to which the patch will be applied is JAVA_TOP.
The readme file mentions that you may need to generate product JAR files in the AD Administration
utilities after the patch is applied.
When generating product JAR files, the AD Administration utility will prompt you with the question: Do you
want to force the generation of all JAR files?
What are the three occasions when you need to force the generation of all JAR files? (Choose three.)
A.after changing your digital signature
B.after updating to a new Java version
C.if you find you have missing or out-of-date JAR files
D.if you are upgrading the Oracle Developer technology stack
Answer: ABD

Oracle   1Z0-238   1Z0-238

NO.26 Which command can be used only with a single-node installation?
A.rapidwiz -restart
B.rapidwiz -techstack
C.rapidwiz -servername
D.rapidwiz -silent -config
Answer: C

Oracle examen   1Z0-238 examen   certification 1Z0-238

NO.27 You discover that you will be applying an application patch on your APPL_TOP by using AutoPatch,
which
contains a compatible feature, the prereq line.
To ensure that the automatic, prerequisite patch-checking feature operates during the application of the
patch, you must run AD Administration, Maintain Snapshot Information, then perform some key tasks, and
then AutoPatch.
Select four key Maintain Snapshot Information tasks or combination of tasks that will ensure that the
prerequisite patch-checking feature operates during the application of the patch. (Choose four.)
A.Update a current view snapshot, or create a named snapshot.
B.Export a snapshot to a file, and then delete the named snapshot.
C.Import an up-to-date snapshot from a file from a different APPL_TOP.
D.List snapshots, delete the named snapshot, and create a named snapshot.
E.Copy the existing snapshot, delete the named snapshot, and then create a named snapshot.
Answer: ACDE

Oracle examen   1Z0-238   1Z0-238   1Z0-238 examen   1Z0-238 examen

NO.28 Identify the files that are changed when you run AutoConfig. (Choose all that apply.)
A./listener.ora
B./.env
C./admin/adconfig.txt
D./.env
E./appl/admin/.xml
Answer: ABD

certification Oracle   1Z0-238 examen   1Z0-238

NO.29 Which table is used by AutoPatch as a staging area for the job information in parallel mode and needs
to be dropped to start a new autopatch session if the earlier session failed?
A.FND_JOBS
B.FND_PROCESSES
C.FND_INSTALL_PROCESSES
D.FND_INSTALLED_PROCESSES
Answer: C

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NO.30 A report output file is generated when you run "Validate APPS schema" by using the adadmin utility in
the Oracle Applications R12 E-Business Suite environment.
If the report shows something similar to "GL_CODE_COMBINATIONS table does not exist or is an invalid
object," what is the first step that the database administrator (DBA) should perform to correct this issue?
A.Run the AD Relink utility and relink the GL product.
B.Use License Manager, and register the GL product.
C.Run Rapid Install to reinstall database components.
D.Run AutoPatch, and apply the GL latest available patch.
E.Run the "Recreate grants and synonyms for the APPS schema" task by using the adadmin utility.
Answer: E

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-023
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Architecture and Administration)
Questions et réponses: 151 Q&As

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NO.1 What is true about the Ship From Stock fulfillment model?
A. Every order line should create a WIP job of equivalent quantity
B. Every order must be reserved
C. Stock is not shipped from the factory to the warehouse until receipt of the order
D. Every order can be pick released almost immediately after booking
Answer: D

Oracle   1Z0-023   1Z0-023   certification 1Z0-023

NO.2 Which three statements are true regarding Drop Ship Orders? (Choose three.)
A. The PO is created from an Approved Requisition, which is then sent to the supplier
B. The suppliers ships to the seller
C. Requisition Import Program creates the requisitions
D. The purchase Release concurrent program or workflow in order management creates
rows in the Requisition import tables
Answer: A,C

Oracle examen   1Z0-023   1Z0-023   1Z0-023   1Z0-023 examen

NO.3 Certkiller .com is a retail company and all its customer orders that are shipped have a
pre-defined freight charge for each line item on the order. The company wants to apply
the freight charge to the sales order automatically to increase the order amount.
What should ABC do?
A. They can't do this; freight charges can be applied only during the ship confirm process
B. A Freight and Special Charges modifier can't be defined to apply the freight charge at
the time of the sales order
C. Automatic Freight and Special Charges modifier to apply at each sales order line
D. Define the surcharge list type of modifier to automatically apply the freight charge at
the time of the sales order
E. Manual Freight and Special Charges modifiers to apply at each sales order line
Answer: C

certification Oracle   1Z0-023   1Z0-023

NO.4 Which two statements are true for setting up freight carriers? (Choose two.)
A. Service levels are required for all freight carriers
B. Freight carriers are organization specific, so they need to be defined for each
organization
C. Freight carriers do not need to be assigned to organizations. After they are defined,
they are available for shipping transactions
D. Freight carriers are defined once and then enabled in the organizations that would use
those particular carriers
E. Service levels are optional additional information for carriers
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 Which three statements are true about freight carriers? (Choose three.)
A. Inter-organization transfer uses an associated General Ledger account to specify the
freight cost
B. Freight carriers are used for shipments to and from customer, supplier and internal
organizations
C. Freight carriers are specific to the inventory organization
D. You can't associate the General Ledger account with each freight to collect associated
costs
E. Freight carriers are used only for customer shipments
Answer: A,B,C

certification Oracle   1Z0-023   1Z0-023

NO.6 Mary wants to perform the Pick Release process for delivery lines that have been booked.
Which three options are valid approaches for her to use? (Choose three.)
A. Run the Auto Allocate process
B. Execute online from the release sales order window
C. Run a concurrent program from the release sales order window
D. Use the standard Report submission process
E. Run the Pick Slip Grouping process
Answer: B,C,D

certification Oracle   1Z0-023   1Z0-023   certification 1Z0-023

NO.7 Which two statements are true about freight and special charges modifiers? (Choose
two.)
A. All freight and special charges are passed to receivables for invoicing
B. Using freight and special charges modifiers, you can apply different freight
C. Freight and special charges can't be manually overridden
D. Only shipping execution can capture freight costs and apply charges
Answer: A,B

Oracle examen   1Z0-023   1Z0-023 examen   1Z0-023

NO.8 James wants to add a new recipient to the Approvals list for seeded Negotiation Flow
with Approvals.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The seeded workflow list of approvers can't be modified
B. He should open the seeded workflow and add the new name there
C. He can't modify the seeded list, so he should create a new workflow
D. He should select Setup>Transaction Types, query the appropriate Transaction Type
and the click the Approvals button. Finally, he should add the recipient to the list of
Approves for the appropriate list name
E. He should select Setup> Transaction Types> Approvals and add the recipient to the
list of Approves for the appropriate list name
Answer: D,E

Oracle examen   1Z0-023   certification 1Z0-023   1Z0-023

NO.9 You have two order lines on a sales order. Line 1 is standard line with shipment and
invoicing. Line 2 is invoice-only line and does not involve any shipment. Which solution
would you use to ensure that line 2 is interfaced with Oracle Receivables at the same time
as line 1?
A. Put both lines in Ship sets
B. Put both lines in ship sets and use defaulting rule to default scheduled ship date from
line 1 to line 2
C. Pub both lines in arrival sets
D. Put both lines in fulfillment sets
Answer: D

Oracle examen   1Z0-023   1Z0-023   1Z0-023

NO.10 You are a consultant to a client. The client has a policy according to the original
scheduled ship date.
The client suspects that people are moving the scheduled ship date on orders so that they
do no appear as a late shipments
The top management wants to know about any order that has its scheduled ship date
changed to a future date. It does not want to stop or slow down the shipping process, but
wants to be able to track orders that have had the date changed.
You decide to manage these changes using shipping exceptions. How would you change
the defaulted values for the exception named "WSH_CHANGE_SCHED_DATE"
shipping exception?
A. Set Exception behavior as defaulted and remove the enabled flag
B. Set Exception behavior to warning
C. Set Exception behavior to Error
D. Set Exception behavior to information only
Answer: D

Oracle examen   1Z0-023   certification 1Z0-023

NO.11 After a sales order is booked, the sales order lines must complete all workflow activities
leading up to the shipping activity. Which two are typical workflow activities as part of
this process? (Choose two.)
A. Create Supply
B. Scheduled Line
C. Create Deliveries
D. Pick Release
E. Create Trip
Answer: A,B

Oracle   1Z0-023   1Z0-023   1Z0-023 examen

NO.12 Which four statements describe the role of Back-to-Back Orders? (Choose Four.)
A. Links sales orders and purchase orders
B. Flow of reservation supply from requisition to PO to inventory
C. Auto Creates requisitions
D. Supplier ships directly to customer
E. Pegs supply to demand
Answer: A,B,C,E

Oracle examen   1Z0-023   1Z0-023 examen   certification 1Z0-023

NO.13 At which stage in the shipping Execution process is a high-level reservation transferred
to an allocated reservation?
A. Sales Order Booking
B. Pick Confirm
C. Ship Confirm
D. Pick Release
Answer: B

Oracle   1Z0-023 examen   1Z0-023 examen   1Z0-023 examen   1Z0-023

NO.14 Which four seeded freight charges are included in Oracle Pricing? (Choose Four.)
A. Duty
B. Services
C. Export
D. Miscellaneous
E. Insurance
Answer: A,C,D,E

Oracle   1Z0-023 examen   certification 1Z0-023   1Z0-023   1Z0-023 examen

NO.15 In order to group sales order lines onto a delivery when attempting to ship an order, some
criteria must be the same.
Which attribute must be the same as controlled by the shipping parameters?
A. Order
B. Customer Account Number
C. Warehouse Location
D. Ship From Location
Answer: D

certification Oracle   1Z0-023   1Z0-023 examen   1Z0-023   1Z0-023 examen

NO.16 A user has been tasked with ensuring that Credit Checking is done at the time of Sales
Order Booking for ABC Corp. Though she believes she set up everything correctly, no
credit checks seem to be occurring.
Which three elements should be check? (Choose three.)
A. Is Credit Checking enabled for the payment terms applied to ABC Corp?
B. Is the Credit check box selected in the standard customer setup for ABC Corp?
C. Is credit check selected at booking on the Order Transaction Type setup used for ABC
Corps orders?
D. Is the credit check hold check box selected in the profile class accounts window for
ABC Corp?
E. Is credit check selected at shipping on the order transaction type setup used for ABC
Corps orders?
Answer: A,B,C

certification Oracle   1Z0-023   certification 1Z0-023   1Z0-023 examen

NO.17 You have defined a Profile class of B to represent customers with $100,000 credit limit.
If you decide to increase the credit limit of all future Class B customers to $150,000,
which method would you choose when you save the updated credit profile?
A. Update all non-customized profiles
B. None of above
C. Do not update exiting profiles
D. Update all profiles
Answer: C

Oracle examen   1Z0-023   certification 1Z0-023   1Z0-023 examen   1Z0-023

NO.18 Certkiller .com. runs on the PTO fulfillment model. All the rule-based business rules for
configuration the model are incorporated using OracleConfigurator, which makes it
intuitive for sales representatives to configure the PTO model.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. After selecting all the options, PTO Model needs to be processed to get the configured
part
B. Routing needs to be defined for the PTO model
C. Ship confirm the option items, not the PTO model and option class
D. Process the configured item to generate the work order
E. Based on the setup, either ship model complete or individual options
Answer: C,E

Oracle examen   1Z0-023   1Z0-023   1Z0-023 examen

NO.19 Which two statements are true about one-step shipping? (Choose two.)
A. One-step shipping must be used with quick ship shipping transactions
B. One-step shipping is the process of ensuring lot controls are shipped appropriately
C. Ship confirm rules must be set up in order to use one-step shipping
D. One-step shipping is the process of picking, optionally packing and ship confirming
delivery lines in one step
Answer: C,D

certification Oracle   1Z0-023 examen   1Z0-023 examen   1Z0-023   1Z0-023 examen

NO.20 Which definition correctly describes the functionality of pricing formulas?
A. A mathematical computation that the order uses to determine which price list to apply
to a given line based on the criteria set in the pricing parameters form
B. A mathematical computation that the pricing engine uses as an alternative to entering
prices in a price list or to calculate a price adjustment
C. A formula that the price list uses to apply modifiers and qualifiers when the correct
criterion is met
D. A formula that evaluates the criteria and the order in which to apply qualifiers
Answer: B

certification Oracle   1Z0-023   1Z0-023

Votre vie changera beaucoup après d'obtenir le Certificat de Oracle 1Z0-023. Tout va améliorer, la vie, le boulot, etc. Après tout, Oracle 1Z0-023 est un test très important dans la série de test Certification Oracle. Mais c'est pas facile à réussir le test Oracle 1Z0-023.

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