2013年10月31日星期四

SOA Certified Professional meilleur examen S90-05A, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: S90-05A
Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (SOA Technology Lab)
Questions et réponses: 40 Q&As

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NO.1 Your company has developed a service that allows your customers to check the status of an order. The
schema for the service is shown here:
A new customer plans to use your service, but they want to test it first. They have asked for two sample
XML documents that show typical input and output message content. Which of the following pairs of XML
elements will validate with the schema shown above?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: D

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NO.2 Your company has developed a PO service that allows customers to submit purchase order documents.
The message sent by a customer must be based on a predefined "purchaseOrder" element and the
message received by the customer is based on a "messageAcknowledgement" element. These two
elements are defined in the following two separate XML Schema definitions: The "purchaseOrder.xsd"
schema:
Note that these two schemas have different namespaces. That is because the "purchaseOrder.xsd"
schema is specific to purchase order-related functions, while the "ack.xsd" schema is more generic and
used for a variety of different purposes.
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: A

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NO.3 Your developer is asked to build a Timesheet service that is able to receive timesheet submissions for
an internal payroll system. Service consumers need to be able to send this service request message
based on a root "employeeHours" element within the SOAP message body. The "employeeHourse"
element will contain "ernpID" and "hours" child elements. Furthermore, the service needs to return a
message based on a "response" element that contains "empID" and "status" child elements.
Your developer comes to you with the following WSDL definition: The only revision you suggest is that the
value of the "style" attribute of the "soap: binding" element be changed to "document" instead of "rpc".
Why?
A. With a value of "rpc", the root element within the SOAP message body will have the name of the
operation, and therefore cannot be named "employeeHours" as indicated by the requirements.
B. With a value of "rpc", the root element within the SOAP message body is unable to be part of an
operation that contains both "input" and "output" elements.
C. The value of "rpc" is not a valid value for the "style" attribute.
D. None of the above.
Answer: A

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NO.4 You are a consultant helping a large bank implement an on-line banking service for its customers. The
first operation you need to build is one that allows a customer to initiate a transfer of funds. You are
presented with the following sample XML document that represents the funds transfer information that
this operation needs to be able to receive:
<transfer>
< fromAccount>12345 </fromAccount>
< toAccount>44432 </toAccount>
<amount>2000</amount>
</transfer>
You are also provided with the following sample that shows that the response message sent by the
service needs to return a single element with text content:
<transferStatus>SUCCESS</transferStatus>
Which of the following XML schemas will validate the two samples shown above?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: C

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NO.5 A partner organization has given you samples of XML documents retrieved from their product
information database. The three samples they have sent you are: Because they are an important partner,
you have agreed to write a service to accept XML documents in their format. However, they did not send
you a schema, so you are tasked with defining a schema that will correctly validate their documents.
Which of the following XML schemas will successfully validate each of the above XML document
fragments.?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: PW0-270
Nom d'Examen: CWAP (Certified Wireless Analysis Professional)
Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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NO.1 When a 5 GHz HT station in a 40 MHz BSS desires to protect a 40 MHz transmission from an OFDM
station using an RTS/CTS or CTS-to-Self exchange, what frame format is used for the RTS and/or CTS
frames?
A. HT-mixed format
B. HT-greenfield format
C. Dual-CTS
D. Non-HT Duplicate
E. Phased Coexistence PPDU
Answer: D

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NO.2 In which 802.11 frames is the SSID present, provided the SSID is not removed through proprietary
software configuration by an administrator? (Choose 3)
A. Association Request
B. Reassociation Request
C. Probe Response
D. Disassociation
E. Authentication
F. Association Response
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.3 Using the exhibit as a reference, answer the following.
STA1 sent a data frame to Mesh AP2 destined for a local file server on the same subnet with MAC
address 00:11:22:33:44:55. Mesh AP2's mesh forwarding algorithm determined that the frame should be
forwarded through Mesh AP1.
In the frame sent from Mesh AP2 to Mesh AP1, what is true of the contents of the MAC header? (Choose
3)
A. SA = Mesh AP2's MAC Address
B. RA = Mesh AP1's MAC Address
C. TA = STA1's MAC Address
D. DA = 00:11:22:33:44:55
E. To DS = 0
F. From DS = 1
Answer: B,D,F

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NO.4 What IEEE 802.11 technology is illustrated by the exhibit?
A. Fragmentation
B. TCP Fragment Bursting
C. A-MSDU
D. A-MPDU E. U-APSD
F. Jumbo frames
Answer: C

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NO.5 According to 802.11-2007, in what frame type(s) might you find the PMK Count and PMKID List fields?
A. All frames that include the RSN IE
B. Only (Re)Association Request frames
C. Beacon and Probe Response frames
D. EAPoL 4-Way Handshake frames
E. Authentication and Association Request and Response frames
Answer: B

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NO.6 What HT PPDU format is shown in the exhibit?
A. HT-mixed format
B. HT-greenfield format
C. Non-HT format
D. Non-HT duplicate format
E. Dual Training Field format
F. ERP-OFDM format
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which statement is true regarding the Association Identifier (AID) used in IEEE 802.11 WLANs?
A. The AID has a maximum value of 2048, and is used to uniquely identify a wireless client station
associated with an access point.
B. The AID has a maximum value of 2007, and resides in the duration/ID field of a PS-Poll frame.
C. The client station is assigned an AID value in the 802.11 authentication response frame.
D. The AID field is present only in Beacons frames.
E. The AID is used by the access point in EDCA mode to reduce duplicate transmissions when sending
multicasts.
Answer: B

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NO.8 In the frame decode shown, there are two sets of supported data rates. 1, 2, 5.5, and 11 Mbps are all
shown as "basic" data rates, and 6, 9, 12, 18, 24, 36, 48, and 54 Mbps are shown simply as supported
data rates.
What is true of "basic" data rates in this context?
A. The AP requires all client stations to support Basic rates in order to associate to its BSS.
B. The highest data rate set to Basic is automatically used to send broadcast traffic such as Beacon
frames.
C. Basic rates are optional data rates for the BSS, often used for assuring connectivity for legacy stations.
D. Basic rates are only used for multicast traffic, and do not affect unicast traffic.
E. Basic rates are defined in an AP's service set to specify mandatory data rates for all retry frames.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which statements are true regarding Beacons from an AP in an HT infrastructure BSS that is configured
with multiple WLAN profiles? (Choose 3)
A. Beacons can be disabled for security purposes.
B. The BSSID and Source Address are always the same.
C. The Destination Address is always FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF.
D. The Receiver address and the BSSID are always the same.
E. When the SSID is "hidden," the ESS subfield of the Capability Information field distinguishes one BSS
from another.
F. All Beacons generated by APs contain a TIM information element.
G. The Beacon interval must be the same for all WLANs (SSIDs) supported by a single AP
Answer: B,C,F

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NO.10 What is the purpose of a PHY preamble.?
A. It provides the receiver(s) with an opportunity for RF channel synchronization prior to the start of the
PLCP header.
B. It communicates important information about the PSDU's length, rate, and upper layer protocol-related
parameters.
C. It provides a cyclic redundancy check (CRC) for the receiving station to validate that the PLCP header
was received correctly.
D. It indicates to the PHY the modulation that shall be used for transmission (and reception) of the PSDU.
Answer: A

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L'avènement de la certification LSI pratique d'examen L50-503 questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: L50-503
Nom d'Examen: LSI (LSI SVM5 Sales Consultant)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 In an IT center with several different vendors storage arrays, virtualized networked storage with SVM
provides migration of data to less expensive tiers of storage by doing what?
A. Pooling the storage into a server virtualization model whereby different servers can emulate hosts and
tier the data.
B. Pooling the storage into a networked virtualization model zoning the virtualized storage utilizing
third-party tools.
C. Pooling the storage across different vendors?storage arrays into a centralized pool and then assigning
different applications and tiers to different pools.
D. Pooling the storage across different vendors?storage arrays into assigned volume groups and use
virtual servers to tier the data.
Answer: C

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NO.2 An SVM prospect just called requesting that you virtualize their data center using VMware. What are
three ways that SVM's volume management capabilities will help this customer? (Choose three.)
A. SVM allows users to quickly and efficiently create and manage volumes for each of the virtual
machines.
B. SVM eliminates the need to deal with ongoing LUN management at the array level.
C. SVM will prevent the virtual servers from running out of space.
D. SVM allows storage be provisioned and reallocated after use with the same simplicity as the virtual
servers.
E. SVM will size the volumes to the actual data size.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.3 How can SVM's centralized management provide better performance?
A. by allocating capacity across RAID arrays
B. by striping volumes across RAID arrays
C. by mirroring volumes across RAID arrays
D. by provisioning additional servers
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which statement describes tiered storage?
A. An infrastructure designed to lower the overall cost of storage by placing volumes on "fit for purpose"
storage based on defined cost, availability, and performance requirements.
B. An infrastructure designed to place data on the storage devices that have the lowest price per
megabyte ratio.
C. An infrastructure designed to place data on different storage devices to ensure a heterogeneous
model.
D. An infrastructure designed to place data on different storage devices to ensure a homogeneous model.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Your customer calls to discuss their DPMs and their consolidation project's impact on their DPM port
count. They are moving from a pair of dual controllers with four ports to one dual controller with eight ports.
Which statement accurately describes what they should do.?
A. They will need four more ports on each DPM.
B. They will need four fewer ports on each DPM.
C. They will need eight more ports on each DPM.
D. They will not need to change their DPM port count.
Answer: D

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NO.6 When consolidating onto a new storage platform, what actually moves the data?
A. the Data Path Module
B. the SVM server
C. the storage array
D. the SAN switch
Answer: B

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NO.7 What are two recommended ways of organizing pools? (Choose two.)
A. by host
B. by RAID level
C. by DPM
D. by users
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 What are three benefits of using thin provisioning? (Choose three.)
A. reclaiming trapped capacity
B. creating empty volumes to reserve capacity
C. expanding volume capacity automatically
D. making multiple copies of volumes for backups
E. saving money on overall storage costs
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.9 A long time customer just called requesting your help justifying SVM as they virtualize their data center
using VMware. What are three reasons SVM's storage services would benefit this customer? (Choose
three.)
A. Rapid application recovery is easier with SVM's snapshot capabilities.
B. SVM will make provisioning easy and fast.
C. Disaster recovery will be less expensive than using traditional methods.
D. SVM will eliminate the need for tape.
E. SVM will automatically size storage to fit the data.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.10 What are two functions of the Data Path Module? (Choose two.)
A. DPM processes control frames.
B. DPM processes data frames.
C. DPM manages metadata.
D. DPM translates addresses.
Answer: B,D

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NO.11 Why would a customer use thin provisioning to manage their storage?
A. to provision more physical capacity to a LUN than is actually needed
B. to cluster LUNs of similar type into one management entity
C. to add more volumes to a management domain than are supported by hardware
D. to create large virtual volumes based on a small amount of physical capacity
Answer: D

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NO.12 Your client is concerned about disaster recovery. You are explaining that SVM can recover from both
physical and logical failures positioning the fact that the majority of failures are actually logical. What
would be a good example for your client?
A. file deletion
B. hardware failure
C. loss of a site due to a disaster
D. split-path architecture
Answer: A

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NO.13 What is an advantage of using thin provisioning over traditional capacity provisioning?
A. A thin volume serves up only the data blocks called for by a read or write request.
B. A thin volume automatically provisions additional capacity for large I/O read requests.
C. A thin volume holds only the changes (writes) made by hosts to the thin volume.
D. A thin volume migrates data from an existing LUN into a new pool.
Answer: C

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NO.14 A warehousing company is in the process of a changeover to a new supplier thus switching out their
inventory. During this changeover, the business requires the highest performance of the inventory
database application. This database currently resides on Tier 3 storage. The customer's Tier 1 storage
has 15000 RPM Fibre Channel drives while the Tier 3 storage has 7200 RPM SATA drives. What is the
SVM solution for this customer?
A. Use the multi-pathing architecture to zone the host dedicated to the Tier 1 storage and zone a separate
host dedicated to Tier 3.
B. Non-disruptively promote the volumes from the Tier 3 storage to the Tier 1 storage before the
changeover and demote the volumes back to Tier 3 when the changeover is complete.
C. Define data policies which will automatically migrate data to Tier 1 and Tier 3 storage levels providing
instant tiering.
D. Non-disruptively place all of the 15000 RPM drives in one array and all of the 7200 RPM drives in
another array thus automatically tiering your storage to different workloads.
Answer: B

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NO.15 What are three functions of the SVM server? (Choose three.)
A. The SVM server processes control frames.
B. The SVM server processes data frames.
C. The SVM server manages metadata.
D. The SVM server translates addresses.
E. The SVM server moves data.
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.16 A long time customer and SVM prospect just called requesting your help to virtualize their data center
using VMware. What are three ways that SVM's snapshot capabilities will help this customer? (Choose
three.)
A. SVM snapshots will eliminate tape from the customer's environment.
B. SVM makes it possible to keep the point-in-time snapshots online for extended periods of time and to
recover from them quickly.
C. SVM snapshots can eliminate the need to install backup agents on every virtual machine.
D. SVM snapshots will protect from physical failures.
E. SVM snapshots can be used to reduce time required to stage, test, and debug software applications.
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.17 Your customer calls to discuss their SVM servers and their consolidation project's impact on their SVM
server port count. They are moving from a pair of dual controllers with four ports to one dual controller with
eight ports. Which statement accurately describes what the impact will be?
A. They will need four more ports on each SVM server.
B. They will need four fewer ports on each SVM server.
C. They cannot change the SVM server's port count.
D. They will need eight more ports on each SVM server.
Answer: C

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NO.18 Your SVM customer calls with questions about performance tuning in their VMware environment. One
of their storage arrays is not running fast enough to support the application for several days each month.
What would you recommend?
A. Buy a faster storage array and move the data with multiView.
B. Use multiCopy to copy the data to a different storage tier, stop the application and remount the data to
the copy.
C. Back up the data off a snapshot and restore it to a faster array.
D. Use multiMigrate to move the application's data to a higher performing storage tier for the busy days.
Answer: D

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NO.19 When moving existing LUNs into a pool, which feature would you use?
A. SVM multiCopy
B. SVM multiMirror
C. SVM multiView
D. SVM disk import
Answer: D

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NO.20 What are two ways that SVM supports consolidation? (Choose two.)
A. SVM can reserve space for future use on a LUN-by-LUN basis.
B. SVM can build RAID structures for enhanced data protection.
C. SVM can migrate data from multiple storage arrays onto a single storage array.
D. SVM can make snapshots of volume groups that are spread across multiple storage arrays.
Answer: C,D

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Code d'Examen: GSNA
Nom d'Examen: GIAC (GIAC Systems and Network Auditor)
Questions et réponses: 368 Q&As

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NO.1 You run the wc -c file1.txt command. If this command displays any error message, you want to store the
error message in the error.txt file. Which of the following commands will you use to accomplish the task?
A. wc -c file1.txt >>error.txt
B. wc -c file1.txt 1>error.txt
C. wc -c file1.txt 2>error.txt
D. wc -c file1.txt >error.txt
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following statements are true about locating rogue access points using WLAN discovery
software such as NetStumbler, Kismet, or MacStumbler if you are using a Laptop integrated with Wi-Fi
compliant MiniPCI card? (Choose two)
A. These tools can determine the rogue access point even when it is attached to a wired network.
B. These tools can determine the authorization status of an access point.
C. These tools cannot detect rogue access points if the victim is using data encryption.
D. These tools detect rogue access points if the victim is using IEEE 802.11 frequency bands.
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the security of
www.we-are-secure.com. He wants to use Kismet as a wireless sniffer to sniff the Weare-secure network.
Which of the following IEEE-based traffic can be sniffed with Kismet?
A. 802.11g
B. 802.11n
C. 802.11b
D. 802.11a
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.4 Sarah works as a Web Developer for XYZ CORP. She is creating a Web site for her company. Sarah
wants greater control over the appearance and presentation of Web pages. She wants the ability to
precisely specify the display attributes and the appearance of elements on the Web pages. How will she
accomplish this?
A. Use the Database Design wizard.
B. Make two templates, one for the index page and the other for all other pages.
C. Use Cascading Style Sheet (CSS).
D. Make a template and use it to create each Web page.
Answer: C

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NO.5 You work as a Network Auditor for XYZ CORP. The company has a Windows-based network. While
auditing the company's network, you are facing problems in searching the faults and other entities that
belong to it. Which of the following risks may occur due to the existence of these problems?
A. Residual risk
B. Inherent risk
C. Secondary risk
D. Detection risk
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following allows the use of multiple virtual servers using different DNS names resolved by
the same IP address?
A. HTTP 1.1
B. JAVA
C. HTML
D. VPN
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following tools works both as an encryption-cracking tool and as a keylogger?
A. Magic Lantern
B. KeyGhost Keylogger
C. Alchemy Remote Executor
D. SocketShield
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following is Microsoft's implementation of the file and application server for the Internet
and private intranets?
A. Internet Server Service (ISS)
B. Internet Server (IS)
C. WWW Server (WWWS)
D. Internet Information Server (IIS)
Answer: D

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NO.9 You work as the Network Administrator for XYZ CORP. The company has a Unix-based network. You
want to set some terminal characteristics and environment variables. Which of the following Unix
configuration files can you use to accomplish the task?
A. /etc/sysconfig/routed
B. /proc/net
C. /etc/sysconfig/network-scripts/ifcfg-interface
D. /etc/sysconfig/init
Answer: D

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NO.10 A Web developer with your company wants to have wireless access for contractors that come in to
work on various projects. The process of getting this approved takes time. So rather than wait, he has put
his own wireless router attached to one of the network ports in his department. What security risk does
this present?
A. None, adding a wireless access point is a common task and not a security risk.
B. It is likely to increase network traffic and slow down network performance.
C. This circumvents network intrusion detection.
D. An unauthorized WAP is one way for hackers to get into a network.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which of the following statements about the traceroute utility are true?
A. It uses ICMP echo packets to display the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of
each gateway along the route to the remote host.
B. It records the time taken for a round trip for each packet at each router.
C. It is an online tool that performs polymorphic shell code attacks.
D. It generates a buffer overflow exploit by transforming an attack shell code so that the new attack shell
code cannot be recognized by any Intrusion Detection Systems.
Answer: A,B

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NO.12 You work as a Network Administrator for XYZ CORP. The company has a Windows Active
Directory-based single domain single forest network. The functional level of the forest is Windows Server
2003. The company's management has decided to provide laptops to its sales team members. These
laptops are equipped with smart card readers. The laptops will be configured as wireless network clients.
You are required to accomplish the following tasks: The wireless network communication should be
secured. The laptop users should be able to use smart cards for getting authenticated. In order to
accomplish the tasks, you take the following steps: Configure 802.1x and WEP for the wireless
connections. Configure the PEAP-MS-CHAP v2 protocol for authentication. What will happen after you
have taken these steps?
A. Both tasks will be accomplished.
B. The laptop users will be able to use smart cards for getting authenticated.
C. The wireless network communication will be secured.
D. None of the tasks will be accomplished.
Answer: C

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NO.13 John works as a Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. The company has a Linux-based
network. John is working as a root user on the Linux operating system. He wants to forward all the kernel
messages to the remote host having IP address 192.168.0.1. Which of the following changes will he
perform in the syslog.conf file to accomplish the task?
A. kern.* @192.168.0.1
B. !*.* @192.168.0.1
C. !kern.* @192.168.0.1
D. *.* @192.168.0.1
Answer: A

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NO.14 John works as a Security Professional. He is assigned a project to test the security of www.we-
are-secure.com. John wants to get the information of all network connections and listening ports in the
numerical form. Which of the following commands will he use?
A. netstat -e
B. netstat r
C. netstat -s
D. netstat an
Answer: D

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NO.15 You check performance logs and note that there has been a recent dramatic increase in the amount of
broadcast traffic. What is this most likely to be an indicator of?
A. Misconfigured router
B. DoS attack
C. Syn flood
D. Virus
Answer: B

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NO.16 You work as a Network Administrator for XYZ CORP. The company has a Windows Server 2008
network environment. The network is configured as a Windows Active Directory-based single forest single
domain network. You have installed a Windows Server 2008 computer. You have configured auditing on
this server. The client computers of the company use the Windows XP Professional operating system.
You want to audit each event that is related to a user managing an account in the user database on the
computer where the auditing is configured. To accomplish the task, you have enabled the Audit account
management option on the server. Which of the following events can be audited by enabling this audit
option.?
A. Access to an Active Directory object
B. Change of password for a user account
C. Addition of a user account to a group
D. Creation of a user account
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.17 John works as a contract Ethical Hacker. He has recently got a project to do security checking for
www.we-are-secure.com. He wants to find out the operating system of the we-are-secure server in the
information gathering step. Which of the following commands will he use to accomplish the task? (Choose
two)
A. nc 208.100.2.25 23
B. nmap -v -O www.we-are-secure.com
C. nc -v -n 208.100.2.25 80
D. nmap -v -O 208.100.2.25
Answer: B,D

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NO.18 Which of the following is a wireless auditing tool that is used to pinpoint the actual physical location of
wireless devices in the network?
A. KisMAC
B. Ekahau
C. Kismet
D. AirSnort
Answer: B

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NO.19 George works as an office assistant in Soft Well Inc. The company uses the Windows Vista operating
system. He wants to disable a program running on a computer. Which of the following Windows Defender
tools will he use to accomplish the task?
A. Allowed items
B. Quarantined items
C. Options
D. Software Explorer
Answer: D

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NO.20 You work as the Network Administrator for XYZ CORP. The company has a Unix-based network. You
want to print the super block and block the group information for the filesystem present on a system.
Which of the following Unix commands can you use to accomplish the task?
A. e2fsck
B. dump
C. dumpe2fs
D. e2label
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: CBAP
Nom d'Examen: IIBA (Cetified business analysis professional (CBAP) appliaction)
Questions et réponses: 305 Q&As

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NO.1 You are the business analyst for your organization. Gary and Janet, two key stakeholders in the project,
are in disagreement over a requirement for the type of software to be installed on the server your solution
calls for. What must happen in this instance before formal approval can be offered?
A. The conflict will need to be resolved through research, resolution, or through a third-party mediation.
B. Gary and Janet will need to determine who has seniority in the company to determine which
requirement takes precedence.
C. The conflict will need to be removed from the solution scope until Gary and Janet come to a solution.
D. The business analyst will need to make a decision on which requirement is most appropriate.
Answer: A

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NO.2 You are the business analyst for your organization. Management wants you to prioritize the identified
requirements by the requirements that have the highest likelihood of success. Why would management
want you to prioritize the requirements with this factor even though some of the requirements may be
difficult to implement?
A. They want a fast return on investment.
B. They want to show early success in the implementation to the project stakeholders.
C. They don't understand the requirements.
D. They want to avoid penalties or fines due to a pending law.
Answer: B

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NO.3 You are the business analyst for your organization and are creating the solution scope definition.
Which of the following should be included in the solution scope definition?
A. Business case
B. Technical dependencies
C. Elicitation techniques
D. Organization readiness assessment
Answer: B

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NO.4 You are the business analyst for your organization and are working with Jennifer to conduct
stakeholder analysis. You would like to create a RACI chart to help with the roles of the people involved in
the stakeholder analysis process. Jennifer is not familiar with this chart and asks what does RACI mean.
Which one of the following best describes the RACI chart in the conduct stakeholder analysis process?
A. It's a matrix that uses the Responsible, Accountable, Consult, and Inform tasks as part of the
stakeholder analysis process.
B. It's a role and responsibility chart that identifies when stakeholders are needed in the business analyst
duties.
C. It's a matrix that uses Role, Action, Consult, and Inform as part of the conduct stakeholder analysis
process.
D. It's a rule that the business analyst can use to identify all of the needed stakeholders: roles, actions,
communications, and interest.
Answer: A

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NO.5 All of the following stakeholders participate in the prioritization of requirements except for which one?
A. Implementation subject matter expert
B. Project team
C. Domain subject matter expert
D. Project manager
Answer: B

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NO.6 You are the business analyst for your organization. Management has asked that you create a model of
the requirements so the stakeholders can better understand the requirements and the project as a whole.
Which of the following statements best describes a model?
A. Models are slices of the project solution.
B. Models simplify the requirements for common stakeholders.
C. Models are statistics for the return on investment, time saved, and other mathematics.
D. Models abstract and simplify reality.
Answer: D

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NO.7 What part of defining the business needs process will evaluate the ends that the organization is
seeking to achieve?
A. Business goals and objectives
B. Alternative identification
C. Solution assessment
D. Requirements
Answer: A

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NO.8 One of the processes within requirements analysis is to prioritize requirements. As a business analyst
why would you ever want to prioritize requirements?
A. You may need to determine the cost of each requirement.
B. You may need to determine the schedule for each requirement.
C. You may need to determine which requirements are most critical so the analysis and
implementation efforts focus on the most critical requirements.
D. You may need to determine which requirements are most critical so additional risk analysis can be
completed on those requirements.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Nancy has asked you to trace a particular requirement for her. What does 'to trace a requirement'
mean?
A. Tracing a requirement means to look at a requirement and the others to which it is related. It links risk,
cost, quality, and scope elements to stakeholder and solution requirements to other artifacts created by
the team and to solution components.
B. Tracing a requirement means to look at a requirement and the others to which it is related. It links
business requirements to stakeholder and solution requirements to other artifacts created by the team
and to solution components.
C. Tracing a requirement means to look at a requirement and the others to which it is related. It links
business requirements to components in the project's work breakdown structure.
D. Tracing a requirement means to track a requirements from its first identification all the way to its
completion to see what issues, risks, costs, quality, and defects have surrounded the requirement
Answer: B

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NO.10 What business analysis element tries to identify as many potential options as possible to meet the
business objectives and fill identified gaps in capabilities?
A. Ranking of approaches
B. Decision analysis
C. Documentation of assumptions and constraints
D. Alternative generation
Answer: D

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NO.11 Gary is the business analyst for his organization and he is preparing a presentation about the
requirements for a large software development project. Before Gary makes the presentation what should
he do as part of his preparation for the presentation?
A. Determine an appropriate format for the presentation.
B. Confirm that he has the authority to host the presentation.
C. Confirm that the stakeholders have signed off on the requirements.
D. Hire a scribe to keep the minutes of the meeting.
Answer: A

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NO.12 You have identified a task in your task list that cannot be completed until the inspector for the project
signs off on the initial deliverables. The inspector's signoff on the initial deliverables is called what?
A. Assumption
B. Dependency
C. Milestone
D. Constraint
Answer: B

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NO.13 What is the term used to describe the cost of the solution after the solution has been implemented in
production by a vendor?
A. Total ownership costing
B. Lifecycle maintenance fees
C. Sustainability fees
D. Total cost of ownership
Answer: D

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NO.14 You are the business analyst for a smaller project where there are few requirements. Management
would still like you to create a method to trace the few requirements for this project. What type of matrix
would be best in this instance?
A. Roles and responsibility matrix
B. RACI matrix
C. Coverage matrix
D. Requirements trace matrix
Answer: C

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NO.15 What type of a business analysis approach focuses on the rapid delivery of business value in short
iterations?
A. Risk-driven
B. Change-driven
C. Risk-laden
D. Profit-driven
Answer: B

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NO.16 Ben is the business analyst for his organization. Ben is currently working on a solution to improve a
laser printer. He has taken the laser printer apart, identified each component, and documented each
component's purpose. What type of requirements organization is Ben doing in this scenario?
A. Process modeling
B. Data modeling
C. Functional decomposition
D. Scope modeling
Answer: C

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NO.17 You are the business analyst for your organization and have many solutions available to an identified
problem. You would like a way to quickly and fairly determine which solution is the best choice for your
organization. Which of the following approaches would allow you to determine the top-rated solutions for
your organization?
A. Scoring system
B. Acceptance and evaluation criteria
C. Vendor assessment
D. Voting system
Answer: A

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NO.18 Fred's organization is using a plan-driven approach for the business analysis deliverables. In this
approach how will the requirements be captured?
A. Fred will use the appropriate documentation at the discretion of the business analysis team .
B. Fred will use the project management information system.
C. Fred will use whatever business analysis forms are most appropriate.
D. Fred will use standardized templates.
Answer: D

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NO.19 You are creating the solution scope for an identified problem in your organization. You are working with
several stakeholders during this process including the domain subject matter expert, the implementation
subject matter expert, the project manager, and the sponsor. Which of these stakeholders will be
responsible for writing the project scope?
A. Domain subject matter expert
B. Business analyst
C. Project manager
D. Sponsor
Answer: C

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NO.20 When an organization is using a change-driven approach to business analysis, how are
communications managed?
A. Communications in a change-driven approach to business analysis focus more on the
frequency of communication.
B. Communications in a change-driven approach typically use face-to-face channels.
C. Communications in a change-driven approach focus more on formal communications.
D. Communications in a change-driven approach are all ad hoc.
Answer: A

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NO.21 What plan will describe the stakeholder groups, communication needs, and the level of formality that is
appropriate for the requirements?
A. Requirements management plan
B. Project management plan
C. Scope management plan
D. Business analysis communication plan
Answer: D

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NO.22 You are the business analyst for your organization and working with Tim to identify the
assumptions within the business solution. Which one of the following is an assumption?
A. The vendor believes the hardware should arrive by December 1
B. The software must be compatible with Windows Vista
C. The software must cost less than $99 per license
D. The hardware must costs less than $450 per unit.
Answer: A

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NO.23 Wanda is the business analyst for her organization and she is currently working on the specify and
model requirements process. One of the elements of this process is the documentation of the textual
requirements. Wanda must describe the capabilities of the solution, any conditions that must exist for the
requirements to operate, and what third component of the textual requirement?
A. Any constraints that may prevent the solution from fulfilling the requirement
B. Write in the active voice
C. Describe a situation or problem
D. Express only one requirement at a time
Answer: A

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NO.24 You are the business analyst for your organization. Management has asked that you create a method to
store the project requirements including those under development, under review, and the requirements
which have been approved. What is management asking you to create?
A. A change management system
B. A repository
C. A project scope statement
D. A requirements register
Answer: B

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NO.25 You are working with Terry on the conduct stakeholder analysis task as part of the business analysis
duties in your company. Terry wants to know why it's so important to identify stakeholders so early in the
business analysis duties. Which one of the following statements best addresses the need to identify the
stakeholders early on in the business analysis duties?
A. It's important to identify the stakeholders so the business analyst knows who to report to.
B. It's important to identify the stakeholders so the business analyst knows who to bill for the project.
C. It's important to identify the stakeholder so the business analyst can help ensure the timely delivery of
the requirements deliverables.
D. It's important to identify the stakeholders so the stakeholders know who the business analyst is.
Answer: C

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NO.26 When do change requests generally increase in a project?
A. During the project's launch.
B. Towards the beginning of the project.
C. During the project scope management processes.
D. Towards the end of the project.
Answer: D

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NO.27 The business analysis approach generally defines all of the following attributes except for which one?
A. Requirements for solutions acceptance
B. Deliverables
C. Team roles
D. Analysis technique
Answer: A

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NO.28 Paul is the business analyst for his organization. He is examining a single solution to determine if the
solution he and his team have identified carries enough business value to justify its implementation. What
business analysis process is Paul performing in this scenario?
A. Define transition requirements
B. Assess proposed solution
C. Assess organizational readiness
D. Allocate requirements
Answer: B

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NO.29 Enterprise analysis creates just five outputs. Which one of the following is an output of the enterprise
analysis tasks.?
A. Assumptions and constraints
B. Stakeholder concerns
C. Solution performance assessment
D. Solution approach
Answer: D

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NO.30 Sally is the business analyst for her organization. Sally and her business analysis team is currently
using a business analysis approach to determine what the competition of her organization is offering
prospective clients. She is trying to identify solutions to increase revenue by remaining competitive with
the competition. What business analysis approach is Sally and her business analysis team using?
A. Business rules analysis
B. Functional decomposition
C. Focus groups
D. Benchmarking
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: adwords-fundamentals
Nom d'Examen: Google (Google Search Fundamentals Exam Practice Test)
Questions et réponses: 208 Q&As

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NO.1 Linda has a discount clothing store and she'd like to post Google AdWords advertisements for her
store. When she creates her ad which one of the follow advertisements would NOT be allowed by Google
AdWords?
A. Good Discounted Clothes
B. Fashion Clothes Online Here
C. Fashion 4U Here
D. No Clothes
Answer: C

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NO.2 Google wants to make certain that Google Content Network consultants understand where people are
spending their time online. Google has identified four categories where people spend their time online.
Which one of the following statements ranks Internet usage for Web users from smallest to largest
percentage of time online according to Google?
A. Commerce sites, content sites, communication sites, search sites
B. Search sites, commerce sites, content sites, communication sites
C. Communication sites, content sites, commerce sites, search sites
D. Content sites, communication sites, commerce sites, search sites
Answer: D

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NO.3 You are managing a Google AdWords for your client. The client has informed you that they want their
ads to go on very specific Web pages in the Google Content Network. Which Google AdWords option
would allow you to specify what pages the advertisement should appear on?
A. Network devices setting
B. Exclusion tools setting
C. Web pages setting
D. Placement targeting setting
Answer: D

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NO.4 Nancy would like to create a display ad for the Google Content Network, but she doesn't have image
editing software. Which of the following is recommended for Nancy to create a display ad for the Google
Content Network?
A. Hire a designer to create the display ad.
B. Use the Display Ad Builder.
C. Use the Adobe Ad Builder.
D. Use a text ad.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Jennifer has been notified that her ad was disapproved by Google. What tool can Jennifer use to
determine why the ad has NOT been approved by Google AdWords?
A. Keyword Review tool
B. AdWords Editor tool
C. Google AdWords ad tool
D. Disapproved Ads tool
Answer: D

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NO.6 You have created four different ads for a client. The client is pleased, but wants to know how Google
AdWords selects which sponsored links ad to display. How does Google AdWords chooses the ad to
display?
A. The AdWords system shows each ad once before rotating to the next ad.
B. The manager of the ad must determine the orderand frequency of the ad to be displayed.
C. The AdWords system automatically rotates among the different ad variations and shows the
better-performing variation more.
D. The AdWords system shows each ad for 100 impressions and then rotates to the next ad.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Google uses multiple approaches, such as IP addressing, to determine the language and location of
users searching for particular keywords. What term is given to the Google analysis of the search term,
such as Tampa doctors, to determine where a user may be originating their search from?
A. Google AdWords search analysis
B. Qualitative analysis
C. Quantitative analysis
D. Query parsing
Answer: D

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NO.8 John has created a new Google AdWords and he has elected to include the ad in the
Google Network. A few weeks later he decides that he longer wants to participate in the Google Network.
How can John opt out of the Google Network?
A. John can contact Google and ask them to disassociate his ads from the Google Network.
B. John can opt out of the network by deselecting the option to include the Google AdWords ad in the
Google Network.
C. John can opt out of the network through the Settings tab of the campaign page.
D. John cannot opt of the network - once he joins his account is attached to the program.
Answer: C

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NO.9 You're serving as a Google AdWords consultant for a company that sells electronics. Bob, your client,
is new to Web-based business sales and he's concerned with how long his ad will run. You explain to Bob
the concept of a daily budget and the monthly costs, but Bob is still worried and would like to just run his
ad for a short period of time. What's the smallest amount of time that you can configure an ad to run for
Bob?
A. 15 minutes per week
B. 48 hours per week
C. 1 hour per week
D. 24 hours per week
Answer: A

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NO.10 Amy is new to Google AdWords and she's curious about the policies Google requires for
participants and their ads. Which one of the following is NOT of the Google AdWords policy categories.?
A. Link policies
B. Editorial and format policies
C. Image policies
D. Content policies
Answer: C

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NO.11 Beth has created a Google AdWords account for her company but she is no longer interested in
managing the Google AdWords. She hires an SEO firm to manage the account and SEM for her.
How can the SEO firm now manage Beth's account?
A. The SEO firm will need to link Beth's account to their account.
B. The SEO firm will need to acquire Beth's account through the My Client Center program.
C. The SEO firm will need to create a new Google AdWords account in the My Client Center program.
D. The SEO firm will need Beth's account login information to login and manage the account as Beth
Answer: A

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NO.12 Google does not allow double-serving advertisements. Which one of the following is the best
explanation of Google's double-serving policy?
A. Google does not allow advertisers or affiliates to have ads across multiple accounts for the same or
similar businesses, or ads across multiple accounts triggered by the same or similar keywords.
B. Google does not allow advertisers or affiliates to have more than one identical business
operating on more than one server.
C. Google does allow multiple accounts triggered by the same or similar keywords as long as the
advertisements direct the customers to a common Website.
D. Google does not allow advertisers or affiliates to have competing ads for the same or similar
businesses.
Answer: A

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NO.13 Jeff is creating a mobile ad for his Website for the Google AdWords program. Which one of the following
options is allowed by Google AdWords for mobile users?
A. A call link so visitors can immediately call rather than visit the Website
B. A text link so visitors can send a text message to the advertiser
C. An ignore mobile ad option to hide the Google AdWords
D. A hide all images option to see just the Google AdWords text
Answer: A

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NO.14 Deanna is new to Google AdWords and she's hired you to help her create an ad for her bakery.
She wants to make certain that only people in her city can actually see her ad - rather than
advertising for users in a different location. You tell Deanna that there are three location options for
Google AdWords. Which one of the following is NOT one of the three location options Deanna can use?
A. Region and city targeting
B. Customized targeting
C. Country targeting
D. Predictive targeting
Answer: D

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NO.15 Martha has created a video ad for her Google AdWords account. She would like to customize where
the video ad is displayed geographically. Which one of the following choices is NOT one of the
geographical customization choices Martha has for displaying her Google AdWords video ad?
A. Internationally
B. Globally
C. Locally
D. Nationally
Answer: B

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NO.16 Your client wants to use Google AdWords' ability to display ads in videos. How can you create a video
ad for your customer?
A. You'll need a video editing program, like QuickTime Pro, to edit and create video ads.
B. You'll insert the text into an ad template that Google AdWords will insert into the video ad.
C. Your video can be created in any program,but the output must be compatible with YouTube.
D. You must use the Display Ad Builder to create a video ad.
Answer: D

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NO.17 You have elected to use the device platform targeting in your Google AdWords. How is the quality
score calculated for this feature?
A. The type of device you've elected to target affects how the quality score is calculated.
B. The type of operating system you've elected to target affects how the quality score is
calculated.
C. Quality scores are not calculated when a Google AdWords users elects to use content
placement.
D. The quality score is calculated the same as all Google AdWords ads: It's calculated using a variety of
factors and measures how relevant your keyword is to your ad group and to a user's search query.
Answer: D

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NO.18 What term is assigned to the concept of measuring your profit that you've made from advertising
compared to how much you've spent on that advertising?
A. ROI
B. Sunk costs
C. CTR
D. CPM
Answer: A

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NO.19 Fred has created a phrase match keyword targeting for his Google AdWords ad. His phrase is used
car. Which one of the following examples of search phrases will allow Fred's ad to be displayed?
A. Car that's been used
B. Used and new car
C. Used toy car
D. Buy used car
Answer: D

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NO.20 Frank is managing a Google AdWords ad group for his travel agency. Frank wants to make certain that
his ad appears in Google when someone searches for Montana cabin rentals. Which one ofthe following
matching options would ensure that Frank's ad would appear when this exact phrase exclusively is used?
A. [Montana cabin rentals]
B. "Montana cabin rentals"
C. -Montana cabin rentals
D. Montana cabin rentals
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: AWMP
Nom d'Examen: Aruba (Aruba Wireless Mesh Professional 4.2)
Questions et réponses: 103 Q&As

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NO.1 In RF mathematics, 1 Watt of power equals what measurement of dBm?
A. 1
B. 10
C. 20
D. 30
E. 100
Answer: D

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NO.2 What limit does receiver sensitivity describe?
A. the maximum RSSI to decode a packet at a specific data rate
B. the minimum RSSI to decode a packet at a specific data rate
C. the receive signal level strength, which is always the same for each rate
D. the maximum output transmit power for receivers that are in range
E. the maximum RSSI to decode a packet at a specific data rate (5 - 45.45%)
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which statement is most correct and should be considered in a typical handheld client Wi-Fi access
mesh design?
A. The upstream and downstream link budgets between clients and mesh routers are symmetrical.
B. Client devices typically broadcast at higher EIRP than mesh routers.
C. Client EIRP and receive sensitivity is generally the limiting factor for range.
D. Mesh backhaul links and client access should all be on the same channel to maximize connectivity.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which statement about Equivalent Isotropically Radiated Power (EIRP) is true?
A. EIRP is the path loss from the transmitter to the receiver in dB
B. EIRP is equal to ((transmit power + antenna gain) - connector and cable loss)
C. EIRP is not important because local regulations do not limit transmit power
D. EIRP is measured in relation to a spherical isotropic radiator
Answer: B

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NO.5 What are the recommended deployment scenarios for MST200.?
A. Part of a point to point link
B. Providing access to mobile clients
C. As a core node in a large mesh
D. As an edge node in a mesh
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 A radio with 100 mW of TX power is connected through a 50-foot cable with 3 dB of loss to an antenna
with 10 dBi of gain. What is the EIRP in mW?
A. 100 mW
B. 250 mW
C. 500 mW
D. 1 W
Answer: C

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NO.7 When RSSI is increased by 6 dB, how many times approximately does the signal strength increase by?
A. 1 time
B. 2 times
C. 8 times
D. 4 times
Answer: D

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NO.8 Consider a radio configured for 20dBm conducted power connected to a 3dbi antenna.
What is the resulting EIRP in mW?
A. 100 mW
B. 200 mW
C. 150 mW
D. 250 mW
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following statements is the best answer regarding lightning arrestors?
A. when installing where lightning is common
B. when installing where power surges are common
C. always, because the outdoor environment is unpredictable
D. whenever the appropriate regulatory agency requires them
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which technical specifications of the antenna should be considered during selection of an antenna?
A. Frequency range
B. Supported data rates and modulation technologies
C. Polarization
D. Gain
E. Encryption modes
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.11 In an Aruba mesh design which mesh scenarios are valid?
A. Point-to-point
B. Point-to-multipoint (hub and spoke)
C. Point-to-point-to-point (linear)
D. Full mesh (redundant links)
E. All of the above
Answer: E

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NO.12 What is the maximum percentage obstruction of the first Fresnel zone in a point to point link?
A. 35%
B. 40%
C. 50%
D. 60%
Answer: B

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NO.13 What effect on RSSI does antenna polarization of the receiver cause?
A. an increase in RSSI when polarized the same as the transmitter
B. an increase in RSSI when polarized exactly opposite from the transmitter
C. no affect to the signal, if the antenna beamwidth are properly aligned.
D. no effect if the deployment is within 30 degrees latitude of the equator
Answer: A

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NO.14 What is the Aruba recommended mounting arrangement for a pair of identical omnidirectional antennas
in an outdoor deployment using 802.11n?
A. Over and under
B. One horizontal and one vertical
C. Any arrangement that separates the antennas by 45 degrees
D. Install the two antennas far apart
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of these statements is correct in regards to Fresnel zone and mesh network design? Choose all
that apply.
A. Mesh network design does not need to account for Fresnel zone.
B. Fresnel zone clearance of at least 60% is required for mesh radio links.
C. Fresnel zone only comes into play when designing Wi-Fi client coverage.
D. Fresnel zone, Free Space Path Loss, EIRP and receive sensitivity are all factors that should be
considered.
Answer: B,D

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