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2014年5月20日星期二

Pass4Test offre une formation sur EMC E20-814 E20-610 matériaux examen

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Code d'Examen: E20-814
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Symmetrix Solutions Expert Exam for Storage Administrators)
Questions et réponses: 116 Q&As

Code d'Examen: E20-610
Nom d'Examen: EMC (CLARiiON)
Questions et réponses: 84 Q&As

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Le Pass4Test est un site qui peut offrir les facilités aux candidats et aider les candidats à réaliser leurs rêve. Si vous êtes souci de votre test Certification, Pass4Test peut vous rendre heureux. La haute précision et la grande couverture de la Q&A de Pass4Test vous aidera pendant la préparation de test. Vous n'aurez aucune raison de regretter parce que Pass4Test réalisera votre rêve.

Pass4Test est un site particulier à offrir les guides de formation à propos de test certificat IT. La version plus nouvelle de Q&A EMC E20-814 peut répondre sûrement une grande demande des candidats. Comme tout le monde le connait, le certificat EMC E20-814 est un point important pendant l'interview dans les grandes entreprises IT. Ça peut expliquer un pourquoi ce test est si populaire. En même temps, Pass4Test est connu par tout le monde. Choisir le Pass4Test, choisir le succès. Votre argent sera tout rendu si malheureusement vous ne passe pas le test EMC E20-814.

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NO.1 An Oracle ASM disk group consists of two 50 GB LUNs and is currently in use. The Oracle
database requires more storage space and has two 100 GB LUNs available.
What is the recommended way to organize ASM disk groups to make use of additional space?
A. Create a new disk group containing two 100 GB LUNs
B. Extend the current disk group to include the two 100 GB LUNs
C. Create two new disk groups containing one 100 GB LUN each
D. Double the disk group size by extending with one 100 GB LUN
Answer: A

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NO.2 A company has activated a consistent clone replica of an Oracle database using hot backup
mode
on February 26th. The Oracle instance continues to run until March 6th. On March 7th, the
company realizes that an application problem occurred on February 28th.
What is the most recent point to which the database can be recovered?
A. February 26th
B. February 28th
C. March 6th
D. March 7th
Answer: B

certification EMC   certification E20-814   certification E20-814

NO.3 SRDF/EDP is running in Adaptive Copy Disk mode from the source (R1) site to the secondary
(R21) site. Which SRDF mode is permitted between the R21 and the R2 sites?
A. Adaptive Copy Write Pending
B. Adaptive Copy Disk
C. Synchronous
D. Semi-synchronous
Answer: A

certification EMC   certification E20-814   E20-814

NO.4 A company uses EMC Symmetrix VMAX storage for their VMware vSphere environment. They
intend to use SRDF/S for disaster recovery.
What is a consideration when mounting datastores on the remote site after a failover?
A. Keep the existing signature on the replica datastore
B. Assign a new signature to the replica datastore
C. Replica datastore must be mounted as read only
D. Original datastore must be unmounted before the replica datastore can be mounted
Answer: A

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NO.5 All applications running on an EMC Symmetrix VMAX array are experiencing poor
performance.
The environment is characterized by:
Dissimilar workloads
Inefficient resource utilization
Service levels not being met
What can be done to guarantee service levels of business critical applications?
A. Implement dynamic cache partitioning
B. Balance throughput across ports
C. Re-map devices to evenly map the workload
D. Provision new storage for applications
Answer: A

EMC   certification E20-814   E20-814 examen   E20-814   E20-814   E20-814 examen

NO.6 A company has a vSphere environment consisting of eight ESXi hosts. Each host is running
EMC
PowerPath/VE and is connected to multiple FA ports on their Symmetrix. PowerPath/VE will not
claim the disk devices presented by their storage array even though the devices are seen by the
hosts.
What is the most likely solution?
A. Configure and register the PowerPath/VE license file
B. Check LUN masking on the array
C. Change the PowerPath/VE failover policy to Symopt
D. Uninstall and reinstall PowerPath/VE
Answer: A

certification EMC   E20-814 examen   E20-814 examen   E20-814 examen

NO.7 Storage administrators for an EMC Symmetrix VMAX need to increase allocated storage for
Microsoft Exchange LUNs without interrupting its operation. Performing a virtual LUN migration
causes a critical nightly clone operation to run for hours instead of minutes. This impacts later
dependent jobs, preventing production operations from completing.
How can this impact to the nightly process be minimized?
A. Set a QoS value of 8 for MIR Copy Pace
B. Set a QoS value of 0 for MIR Copy Pace
C. Set SPC value of 1 on the Exchange LUNs
D. Set SPC value of 8 on the clone LUNs
Answer: A

EMC examen   certification E20-814   E20-814 examen   E20-814

NO.8 A company's administrator has implemented Symmetrix Access Control. The motherboard in
the
UNIX host with ADMIN privileges was replaced. After this change, the administrator was unable to
issue any Symmetrix Management commands.
What is the next step the administrator should take?
A. Regenerate the Unique ID
B. Reboot the UNIX host
C. Reset the Access Control database
D. Reinstall Solutions Enabler
Answer: A

certification EMC   E20-814   E20-814

Pass4Test offre de EMC E20-597 E20-385 E20-670 matériaux d'essai

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Code d'Examen: E20-597
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Backup and Recovery Specialist Exam for Storage Administrators)
Questions et réponses: 168 Q&As

Code d'Examen: E20-385
Nom d'Examen: EMC (E20-385 Data Domain Specialist Exam for Implementation Engineers)
Questions et réponses: 116 Q&As

Code d'Examen: E20-670
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Networked Storage-CAS Installation/Troubleshooting Specialst)
Questions et réponses: 180 Q&As

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NO.1 Which program has been specifically designed for small-sized and medium-sized businesses and
provides easy, cost-effective network support to help ensure reliable operations, contain costs, and
protect their investments?
Select the best response.
A. Cisco Software Application Support Services
B. Cisco Focused Technical Support Services
C. Cisco Smart Foundation Service
D. Cisco SP Base
E. Cisco SMARTnet Onsite
Answer: C

EMC examen   certification E20-670   certification E20-670

NO.2 Which layer of the OSI model does FTP use?
A. Application
B. Data link
C. Network
D. Transport
Answer: A

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NO.3 In the OSI model, which layer would a router be defined in?
A. Data link
B. Network
C. Network interface
D. Transport
Answer: B

EMC examen   certification E20-670   certification E20-670   E20-670   certification E20-670   certification E20-670

NO.4 Which three products are targeted primarily for deployment in enterprise environments? (Choose
three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. Cisco 1800 Series ISRs
B. Cisco Catalyst 4500 Series Switches
C. Cisco Catalyst 2960 Series Switches
D. Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Switches
E. Cisco 7200 Series Routers
F. Cisco 2800 Series ISRs
Answer: BDE

EMC examen   certification E20-670   certification E20-670

NO.5 Which port number is used to communicate to an SMTP server?
A. 20 or 21
B. 22
C. 25
D. 321
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which tool provides a complete guide that makes it easier for partners, regardless of their experience
level, to sell Cisco Unified Communications solutions to their customers?
Select the best response.
A. Solution Expert
B. Quote Builder
C. Sales Accelerator
D. Competitive Edge
E. Cisco Discovery
Answer: C

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NO.7 How many leading bits are used to determine the class of an Internet address?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which network topology best describes how EMC Centera nodes are networked together?
A. Bus
B. Mesh
C. Ring
D. Star
Answer: D

EMC examen   certification E20-670   E20-670 examen   E20-670   certification E20-670

2014年4月2日星期三

Le matériel de formation de l'examen de meilleur EMC E20-335

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Code d'Examen: E20-335
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Symmetrix Solutions Specialist Exam for Implementation Engineers)
Questions et réponses: 105 Q&As

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NO.1 Which file contains the parameter that can change the default behavior of SYMCLI operations, and
there control actions?
A. SYMCLI options File
B. SYMAPI Options File
C. SYMCLI Command File
D. SYMAPI Command File
Answer: B

EMC   E20-335   E20-335 examen

NO.2 How does Delta Set Extension help in an SRDF/A deployment?
A. Reduces RPO
B. Reduces the amount of required cache
C. Improves response time
D. Absorbs bursts of host writes
Answer: D

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NO.3 You have been asked to create a configuration for a single engine Symmetric V-Max array with 8 DAEs
and 64 drivers. They would like to have the data devices with RAID 5(7+1) protection.
What would be the largest number of members you would recommend for a stripped metavolume.?
A. 4
B. 16
C. 8
D. 32
Answer: B

EMC   certification E20-335   E20-335

NO.4 In symmetric V-max series array running Enginuity 5874, which device is used as a pass-through
device for Auto provisioning?
A. VDEV
B. VCM
C. ACLX
D. SFS
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is recommended before creating a TimeFinder/Mirror replica?
A. Ensure that the production application using the source devices is shut down
B. Ensure that all writes from the production application using the source devices are paused!
C. Ensure that the BCVs are not being actively accessed
D. Set the BCVs to a Not Ready state
Answer: Chttp://www.scribd.com/doc/37352326/Emc-Study-2

NO.6 Refer to the exhibit.
A database server has its logs stored on a volume on the log source Symmetrix V-Max array and its data
stored on a volume on the data source Symmetrix V-Max array. Both source Symmetrix V-Max array
frames replicate data to the target Symmetrix V-Max array at the Remote site. There are two device
groups that have been defined:
One group for the data volume on the Symmetrix containing the data LUNs
One group for the log volume on the Symmetrix containing the log LUNS
What happens if the SRDF inks between the Symmetrix contain the data LUNs and the target Symmetrix
were to fail?
A. The R2 data in the database remains consistent because Enginuity Consistency Assist (RDFECAJ
technology would ensure data consistency).
B. The data in the database becomes inconsistent at the Remote site.
C. An SRDF failover would be initiated on all volumes and processing will automatically be switched over
to the Remote site
D. The R2 volumes in the Symmetrix V-Max containing the log LUNs would become write-disabled to the
database server
Answer: C

EMC   certification E20-335   E20-335

NO.7 What is required to ensure the integrity of data on the R2 volume during a SRDF fallback operation?
A. Remove entries from the file system table
B. Stop any applications that are accessing the R2 volume
C. Disable journaling on the file system
D. Suspend the RDF link
Answer: B

EMC   E20-335   E20-335   E20-335

NO.8 Where is the volume Logix Database maintained starting with DMX-3?
A. VCM gatekeeper
B. Symmetrix logical Volume
C. Symmetrix File System
D. VCM database.
Answer: C

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NO.9 On the Symmetrix platform, which type of RAID protection ensures the best random write performance?
A. RAID 1
B. RAID S
C. RAID 6
D. RAID 5
Answer: A

EMC examen   E20-335   certification E20-335

NO.10 Open Replicator pull will be used to move data between a third party array and a Symmetrix V-Max
array.
What is recommended before starting the Open Replicator session?
A. Ensure that the remote devices are Host read/write enabled
B. Ensure that the control devices are Not Ready
C. Ensure that the remote devices are Host inaccessible
D. Ensure that the control devices are Write Disabled
Answer: C

EMC   E20-335 examen   E20-335 examen   E20-335 examen

NO.11 Which command is used to set or reset HBA port flags on Symmetric arrays running Enable 7.0
Enginuity 5874?
A. symcfg
B. symmask
C. symconfigure
D. symaccess
Answer: D

EMC   E20-335 examen   E20-335   certification E20-335

NO.12 Diagnostic messaging for the GNS daemon is written to which file?
A. /7SYMAPI/emc/storgnsd .log0
B. /SYMAPI/log/storgnsd.log0
C. /SYMAPl/usr/storgnsd log0
D. /SYMAPl/bin/storgnsd log0
Answer: B

certification EMC   E20-335   E20-335   certification E20-335

NO.13 One of the requirements, during an Open Replicator implementation is that production application
should not be implemented by open Replication session. An analysis of the control Symmetrix showed
that FA ports are currently 70% utilized. How should pace and ceiling be configured?
A. Pace should be set to 0 and Ceiling should be left at the default
B. Pace should be left at the default and Ceiling set to 30
C. Pace should be left at the default and Ceiling set to 100
D. Pace should be set to 9 and Ceiling should be set to 70
Answer: B

EMC   certification E20-335   E20-335   certification E20-335

NO.14 Refer to the exhibit
What is the correct state for the Standard and Rl-BCV prior to issuing a symreplicate start command?
A. Synchronized
B. Suspended
C. Split
D. Write-Enable
Answer: C

certification EMC   E20-335   E20-335   certification E20-335   certification E20-335   E20-335 examen

NO.15 An SRDF failover has been executed during the testing phase of an implementation. What is the
expected status of the R1 and R2 devices after performing SRDF failover operation?
A. R1 and R2 Not Ready
B. R1 Wnte Disabled; R2 Read/Wnte
C. R1 Read/Wnte, R2 Read/Wnte
D. R1 Read/Wnte. R2 Wnte Disabled
Answer: Bhttp://www.scribd.com/doc/29541661/Srdf-Operations-white-Paper

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Les meilleures EMC E20-016 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: E20-016
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Storage Networking Design Specialist Exam for Data Center Architects)
Questions et réponses: 114 Q&As

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NO.1 A company's IT organization is comparing two technology proposals. Option 1 would retain existing
legacy equipment while Option 2 would replace the existing infrastructure.
Option 1:
-Total operational costs = $300,000 per year -Annual storage requirements = $100,000 per year
Option 2:
-Initial investment = $1,000,000 -Recurring annual operational costs = $150,000 per year -Annual storage
requirements = $50,000 per year
The company's write-off costs for the legacy equipment is $50,000. As a business analyst using a TCO
analysis, which course of action would you recommend?
A. Option 1 is feasible if the project lifespan is less than 5 years
B. Option 1 is feasible if the project lifespan is more than 6 years
C. Option 2 is feasible if the project lifespan is less than 5 years
D. Options 1 and 2 are feasible if the project lifespan is 5 years
Answer: A

EMC   E20-016   certification E20-016   E20-016

NO.2 An organization purchased a NAS storage infrastructure to service all its applications for three years.
Various cost components for this deployment are as follows:
- Initial cost includes the purchase cost of $2,000 and an installation charge of $400.
- Organization needs to pay $200 per year for maintenance and $100 per year as license fees.
- From Year 2, the organization must pay $1,000 per year for OS upgrades.
At the end of the three years, the organization needs to pay a recycling fee of $50 to dispose of the NAS
device that will no longer be needed.
What is the total cost of ownership (TCO) each year to implement this technology infrastructure?
A. $1,783
B. $2,675
C. $3,566
D. $5,350
Answer: A

EMC   E20-016   E20-016   E20-016

NO.3 Areas A, B, and C are three performance segments that represent demands of application classes.
Which application performance need is illustrated by Segment B in the exhibit.?
A. Availability
B. Interoperability
C. Ease of management
D. Throughput
Answer: A

certification EMC   E20-016   E20-016   E20-016   E20-016 examen

NO.4 Areas A, B, and C are three performance segments that represent demands of application classes.
Which application performance need is illustrated by Segment C in the exhibit?
A. Throughput
B. Availability
C. Interoperability
D. Ease of management
Answer: A

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NO.5 A multi-national bank provides online services to its customers. The bank has implemented a new credit
risk analysis system with data mining capabilities. In addition, the bank wants to provide enhanced
business intelligence to its loan officers.
The application development team has determined a 20 TB storage requirement. Which application
class(es) describe(s) this environment?
A. Enterprise
B. Workgroup
C. Externally networked
D. Workgroup and externally networked
Answer: A

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NO.6 A company's 20 file servers were consolidated onto a NAS device at a cost of $350,000 for the
hardware and $75,000 for implementation services. The consolidated/replaced servers were written off
for the remaining book value of $75,000. The company will realize $60,000 per month due to this
consolidation.
What is the return on investment (ROI) in one year and the break-even point for the company's initial
investments?
A. 44%; Month 8
B. 44%; Month 9
C. 70%; Month 8
D. 70%; Month 9
Answer: B

certification EMC   certification E20-016   E20-016   E20-016

NO.7 A company wants to invest in a storage networking project. What are the key business value
parameters that must be considered when making a decision to proceed with the investment?
A. Return on investment and payback period
B. Net present value and break-even point
C. Net present value and return on investment
D. Payback period and operating cost
Answer: A

EMC   certification E20-016   E20-016   E20-016   E20-016

NO.8 A company's business operations depend on the following three applications:
A = Supply chain management
B = CAD/CAE (design)
C = e-Commerce
Which application classes are associated with these applications?
A. A=Enterprise; B=Workgroup; C=Externally networked
B. A=Externally networked; B=Workgroup; C=Enterprise
C. A=Workgroup; B=Enterprise; C=Externally networked
D. A=Workgroup; B=Externally networked; C=Enterprise
Answer: A

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NO.9 The Present Value (PV) of $50,000 in 5 years, with a discount rate of 10% each year, is represented in
the exhibit.
A company invests $98,000 on new monitoring software for its critical database. An annual yield of
$50,000 is expected.
What is the first time the company will see its investment yielding positive returns?
A. Year 1
B. Year 2
C. Year 3
D. Year 4
Answer: C

EMC   E20-016   certification E20-016   certification E20-016   E20-016   E20-016 examen

NO.10 An organization is using cloud storage to back up their employees
desktop data. The backup
application running at the organization s data center ensures moderate performance while backing up
data.
The application completes the entire backup within the stipulated backup window. By leveraging cloud
storage service, the backup application meets high-availability and high-recoverability requirements of
employees
data.
Based on the exhibit, which section accurately represents this application?
A. A
B. C
C. D
D. F
Answer: C

EMC   E20-016   certification E20-016   certification E20-016

NO.11 A company is comparing two technology options for their IT environment. Option 1 is to retain the
existing legacy environment, and Option 2 will require the replacement of the current solution with a new
solution.
Option 1:
-Operation costs including maintenance of the current infrastructure = $300,000 per year -Investment in
additional storage requirements = $100,000 per year
Option 2:
-Initial cost of the new solution = $1,000,000 -Operation costs with the new infrastructure = $150,000 per
year -Investment in additional storage = $50,000 per year
The company's write-off cost for the current solution is $50,000. As a business analyst, what would you
recommend to the company based on the TCO?
A. Option 1 is feasible if the project lifespan is less than 5 years
B. Option 1 is feasible if the project lifespan is more than 6 years
C. Option 2 is feasible if the project lifespan is less than 5 years
D. Options 1 and 2 are feasible if the project lifespan is 5 years
Answer: A

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NO.12 A director contains eight port cards with four ports per card. If two of the director's port cards are
unavailable for five minutes, what is the path minute of SAN performance degradation?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 32
D. 40
Answer: D

certification EMC   certification E20-016   E20-016   E20-016

NO.13 After careful consideration, a business has decided to implement thin provisioning in its SAN
environment. Implementing thin provisioning will require the following investment:
- License costs = $100,000
- Other one-time costs (for example, training, installation) = $50,000 Continuing as is, storage
requirement projections over the next three years would total 70 TB. Employing thin provisioning will allow
the storage requirements to be reduced to 40 TB. The cost of storage is $40,000 per TB.
What is the return on investment (ROI) percentage for this project?
A. 7
B. 70
C. 700
D. 7000
Answer: C

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NO.14 A redundant switch contains eight-port cards with four ports per card. If one of the port cards is
unavailable for eight minutes before it is hot swapped, what is the resultant path minute of SAN
performance degradation?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 24
D. 32
Answer: D

certification EMC   E20-016   E20-016

NO.15 A company is deploying a new application. During the requirements gathering process, your team has
documented several key company requirements.
What could be a key functional requirement?
A. Copying data to three different locations
B. Lower storage footprint
C. Interoperability with the existing infrastructure
D. Low administrative costs per TB/storage
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: E20-818
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Symmetrix Solutions Expert Exam for Implementation Engineers)
Questions et réponses: 161 Q&As

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NO.1 Click the Calculator icon in the upper left-hand corner.
A customer is migrating their SQL server from a NAS back end to a new RAID 1-protected Symmetrix
V-Max SE array. Perfmon was used to create a log view of an average day's activity against the database
LUN as represented in the exhibit. Unfortunately the database's data file and transaction log are located
on the same LUN. The database administrator has informed you that this database typically processes 25
GB worth of transactions over the course of their 12-hour business day.
Which discount in IOPS should be taken before determining the number of spindles required for the data
file LUN?
A.75
B.152
C.176
D.365
Answer:A

EMC   certification E20-818   certification E20-818   E20-818 examen   E20-818

NO.2 A customer is planning an SRDF/Star configuration as shown in the exhibit. The customer wants to
switch production to the synchronous target in the event of a workload site fault.
In addition to the Base and SRDF Solutions Enabler licenses, which licenses are recommended at the
synchronous target?
A.TimeFinder/Clone and TimeFinder/CG
B.TimeFinder/Mirror and TimeFinder/Clone
C.TimeFinder/Snap and TimeFinder/CG
D.TimeFinder/Snap and TimeFinder/Mirror
Answer:A

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NO.3 Refer to the Exhibit.You have been asked to configure a Cascaded SRDF solution at a customer site.
The production site will be at Site A, the synchronous target will be at Site B, and the asynchronous target
at Site C.
Which kind of RDF devices will be needed at each site?
A.R1 at Site A, R21 at Site B, and R2 at Site C
B.R11 at Site A, R21 at Site B, and R22 at Site C
C.R11 at Site A, R21 at Site B, and R2 at Site C
D.R1 at Site A, R2 at Site B, and R21 at Site C
Answer:A

EMC examen   E20-818   E20-818

NO.4 A new Cascaded SRDF customer is running in SRDF/A mode from the source (R1) site to the
disk-based secondary (R21) site. In this scenario, which SRDF mode is permitted between the R21 and
the R2 sites?
A.Adaptive Copy Disk
B.Adaptive Copy Write Pending
C.Synchronous
D.Asynchronous
Answer:A

EMC examen   certification E20-818   certification E20-818   E20-818

NO.5 In the event of a physical disk spindle failure, how would a customer with Microsoft SQL Server
maximize availability?
A.Logs should be on RAID 1 volumes with data volumes on separate RAID 6 volumes
B.Logs should be on RAID 1 volumes with data volumes on separate RAID 5 volumes
C.Logs and data files should be on separate RAID 5 volumes
D.Logs and data files should be on separate RAID 1-protected volumes
Answer:A

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NO.6 As reflected in the exhibit, a customer has a Cascaded SRDF/Star environment. Site B fails and they
undertake a reconfiguration to provide remote data protection between Sites A and C.
What is used to determine the invalid tracks that must be moved from Site A to Site C?
A.Inclusive OR of two SDDF bitmaps at Site A
B.Inclusive OR of two SDDF bitmaps at Site A and a bitmap at Site C
C.Inclusive OR of two SDDF bitmaps at Site B
D.Inclusive OR of two SDDF bitmaps at Site C
Answer:A

EMC examen   E20-818 examen   E20-818   E20-818 examen

NO.7 A customer wants to provide remote disaster recovery (DR) for several critical mailbox servers in their
Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 environment. Local recoverability is provided by creating replicas of their
critical databases.
The customer's DR site is located 20 km away. They have already provisioned the necessary failover host
on the DR site, as well as the required Active Directory infrastructure needed to support a failover.
However, they want to minimize the total number of database copies required to provide basic failover
capabilities for the Exchange server.
Which solution would you recommend to provide remote point-of-failure recovery with the fewest local
and remote database copies?
A.R1-R2-BCV
B.Mixed Mirroring
C.STD-R1BCV-R2-BRBCV
D.STD-R1BCV-R2
Answer:A

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NO.8 A customer wants to use TimeFinder/Exchange Integration Module (TF/EIM) to create daily local
replicas of a critical Microsoft Exchange 2007 mailbox server. Using Terminal Services, they connect
remotely to the backup server and execute the following command:
exbackup2007 -v -vss -s [servername\] -preestablish
The command runs up until the point where TF/EIM attempts to mount the volumes, then it fails. Why is
the process unable to complete?
A.Exbackup is not supported using a terminal session
B.Correct VSS Provider was not installed
C."copyonly" switch must be specified the first time a backup is run
D.Exbackup does not have the permissions needed to run on the backup host
Answer:A

EMC   E20-818 examen   E20-818

NO.9 A customer has three data centers that are used to run SRDF/AR multi-hop on Symmetrix DMX-4
arrays.
Production is located at Site A
Secondary site is located at Site B
Tertiary site is located at Site C
In the event of a Site A failure, the customer wants to be able to fail over to Site C while retaining the
ability to have remote data protection. Which solution will offer the best RPO and RTO for this customer?
A.Cascaded SRDF
B.Latest version of SRDF/AR
C.Concurrent SRDF
D.SRDF/EDP
Answer:A

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NO.10 A customer is running Concurrent SRDF/Star. The disaster recovery (DR) plan allows for the workload
to be switched to either the synchronous site or the asynchronous site. In addition, part of their DR plan is
to enable SRDF/Star protection once the workload site comes back online.
Which advice should be given to the customer?
A.If production fails over to the synchronous site, it is possible to run in a Star-protected configuration after
the return of the original workload site.
B.If production fails over to either the asynchronous site or synchronous site, it is not possible to run in a
Star-protected configuration from either site after the return of the original workload site.
C.If production fails over to either the asynchronous site or synchronous site, it is possible to run in a
Star-protected configuration from either site after the return of the original workload site.
D.If production fails over to the asynchronous site, it is possible to run in a Star-protected configuration
after the return of the original workload site.
Answer:A

EMC examen   certification E20-818   E20-818   E20-818

NO.11 A composite group spanning two Symmetrix arrays is set up to run SRDF/Star using Cascaded SRDF
as illustrated in the exhibit. What is one of the necessary conditions before the SRDF daemon at Site A
will perform an MSC cycle switch?
A.Transmit delta sets from Site B to Site C have finished
B.SDDF bitmaps have been swapped at Site A
C.Invalid track count between Sites A and C is less than 30000
D.SYMCLI_STAR_ALLOW_CASCADED_CONFIGURATION option must be enabled in the option file
Answer:A

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NO.12 A customer is migrating their Microsoft Exchange 2007 server from a NAS back end to a new
Symmetrix V-Max SE array. As illustrated in the exhibit, perfmon was used to create a log view of an
average day's activity against the database LUN of the busiest datastore in the Exchange environment.
This will serve as the performance benchmark for all other database LUNs. There are an additional four
mailbox databases on this server.
How many RAID 1-protected 15k rpm spindles are required to satisfy the performance needs of the
customer for all the mailbox databases on this server?
A.10
B.26
C.38
D.50
Answer:D

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NO.13 An SRDF/Star solution has been proposed. The customer is slow to accept the solution because they
are concerned about the reliability of the RDF daemon.
How would you address the customer's concern?
A.RDF daemons will be deployed on multiple management stations at the workload site. The RDF
daemons will cooperate with each other.
B.RDF daemon process runs on the Symmetrix array and has built-in redundancy.
C.RDF daemon process runs on the Symmetrix array. If the workload site RDF daemon fails, the RDF
daemon from one of the other sites will take over.
D.RDF daemons will be deployed on one management station at each of the three sites. If the workload
site RDF daemon fails, one of the RDF daemons from the other two sites will take over.
Answer:A

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NO.14 A customer has been creating replicas of several Microsoft Exchange mailbox servers using Replication
Manager. They have recently added a new Exchange Server 2007 mailbox host to the environment.
In addition, the customer has created a scheduled job to create replicas of five storage groups in
consecutive order. Since doing so, they notice that the newly added replica jobs seem to take a very long
time to complete.
What is the source of the problem?
A.NTFS volumes containing the databases were not formatted with the correct cluster size
B.Replication Manager job should have been configured to create the replicas simultaneously
C.Latest Replication Manager Client Service Pack was not installed on the Exchange server
D.Exchange management utilities were not installed on the Replication Manager mount host
Answer:A

EMC   E20-818   E20-818

NO.15 An Microsoft Exchange administrator has recently encountered an issue with one of the databases in
their Exchange 2007 environment. The decision was made to perform a partial restore of only the single
database.
Based on EMC and Microsoft best practice, what are the proper ordered steps needed to complete this
task?
A.1) Dismount all databases in the storage group. 2) Restore the database replica. 3) Remove the .chk
file from the system path folder. 4) Remount all databases in the storage group.
B.1) Remove the .chk file from the system path folder. 2) Dismount all databases in the storage group. 3)
Restore the database replica. 4) Remount all databases in the storage group.
C.1) Dismount all databases in the storage group. 2) Remove the .chk file from the system path folder. 3)
Restore the database replica. 4) Remount all databases in the storage group.
D.1) Dismount all databases in the storage group. 2) Remove the .chk file from the system path folder. 3)
Remount all databases in the storage group. 4) Restore the database replica.
Answer:A

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NO.16 A customer has implemented Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 in an SRDF environment with replicas
being taken at the disaster recovery (DR) site. During testing of this solution, they have failed over
Exchange operations to the DR site. The Exchange mailbox server appears to come online, but user
mailboxes are inaccessible. The Exchange Management Console shows all mailboxes marked with a
small red "x" over the mailbox icons.
Which course of action will resolve this issue?
A.Ensure the Exchange mailbox server at the DR site can communicate with an Active Directory Domain
Controller
B.Recover the database from the BCV copies available at the DR site
C.Ensure that the World Wide Web service on the Exchange server at the DR site has started
successfully
D.Recover the database from the remote BCV copies available at the primary site
Answer:A

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NO.17 Group Name Services (GNS) is enabled in an SRDF/Star solution. What is a benefit of GNS in a
SRDF/Star environment?
A.Facilitates management of SRDF/Star when there are multiple management hosts at each location
B.Distributes the Star internal definition file to the Symmetrix arrays at both target locations
C.Propagates the composite group definitions over SRDF links
D.Restarts the SRDF daemon in the event it stops unexpectedly
Answer:A

EMC   E20-818   E20-818   E20-818   certification E20-818   E20-818 examen

NO.18 A customer's SQL database has been experiencing performance degradation every time a particular
query is run. When designing the storage layout, all user databases were properly sized according to
EMC best practices.
Which storage configuration could be the source of the problem?
A.Tempdb and user databases are sharing spindles
B.MDF and LDF files are not sharing spindles
C.RAID 5 protection has been used for Tempdb
D.Data files are spread over striped metavolumes
Answer:A

EMC   certification E20-818   E20-818 examen   E20-818 examen

NO.19 A Microsoft SQL Server database administrator wants to execute backups using Solutions Enabler SRM
functionality. Which ODBC variable(s) needs to be set to enable the symioctl and symrdb command set?
A.SYMCLI_RDB "CONNECT" and "TYPE" environment variables
B.SYMCLI_RDB "NAME" and "TYPE" environment variables
C.Only the SYMCLI_RDB "Connect" to the database "username/password"
D.Only the SYMCLI_RDB "TYPE" variable to "sqlserver"
Answer:A

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NO.20 A customer wants to use Replication Manager to replicate and mount, at the file group level, a Microsoft
SQL Server database. What must be done before creating a Replication Manager file group replication
job?
A.Ensure no other data files are on the same volume with the selected file group
B.Copy the log files along with the file group data files
C.Use the recover database option when mounting a file group
D.Create a TimeFinder device group that contains only the file group data files
Answer:A

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Code d'Examen: E20-005
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Backup Recovery Systems and Architecture Exam)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the fault tolerance of a RAID 5 array, where n is the number of disks in the array?
A. 1
B. n-1
C. 2
D. n-2
Answer: A

EMC   E20-005 examen   certification E20-005   certification E20-005

NO.2 A customer is moving data from a backup disk to tape, which will later will be stored offsite.
What is this process called?
A. Cloning
B. Staging
C. Aging
D. Mirroring
Answer: B

EMC examen   certification E20-005   E20-005

NO.3 What is the process of moving data from one storage medium to another?
A. Cloning
B. Replication
C. Staging
D. Twinning
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which type of backup only copies the files that have changed since the last full backup.?
A. Cumulative
B. Full
C. Incremental
D. Synthetic full
Answer: A

EMC   E20-005   E20-005   E20-005

NO.5 What is the role of the storage node in a client/server backup architecture?
A. Writes data to a backup device
B. Gathers data to be backed up
C. Manages the backup operation
D. Writes metadata to the backup catalog
Answer: A

EMC   E20-005 examen   E20-005   E20-005 examen

NO.6 You are planning the staging policy for disk-to-offsite tape backup media. In addition to available disk
space, which factor is most significant when determining how long to keep the backup data on disk?
A. Length of time when most restore requests are expected to occur
B. Location of offsite storage
C. Cost of shipping and storing tapes
D. Tape capacity
Answer: A

EMC examen   E20-005   E20-005 examen

NO.7 A customer has a requirement to restore operations within two hours after a disaster.
What is this time period called?
A. Recovery time objective (RTO)
B. Retention period
C. Recovery point objective (RPO)
D. Backup window
Answer: A

EMC   certification E20-005   E20-005   E20-005 examen

NO.8 What is an example of a PCI connection?
A. Parallel interface between a disk and the controller card
B. Interconnection between a CPU and network card
C. Serial connection between a disk and the controller card
D. Interconnection between a tape drive and a computer
Answer: B

EMC examen   certification E20-005   E20-005

NO.9 What terminology is used to describe grouping several physical drives into one logical drive?
A. Concatenation
B. Partitioning
C. Formatting
D. Grouping
Answer: A

EMC examen   E20-005 examen   E20-005   E20-005 examen   E20-005   E20-005

NO.10 Which software component of a backup application sends media metadata to the backup server?
A. Storage node
B. Client
C. NetWorker Management Console
D. Application server
Answer: A

certification EMC   E20-005   certification E20-005

NO.11 What is the primary reason for having disaster recovery backups?
A. To restore data from an alternate site due to data loss at a primary site
B. To restore data when data loss or logical corruptions occur during routine processing
C. To restore data that was archived for regulatory compliance
D. To restore data when data loss occurs due to minor hardware component failures
Answer: A

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NO.12 What is the interval of time between the creation and expiration of the backup called?
A. Retention period
B. Recovery point objective (RPO)
C. Recovery time objective (RTO)
D. Backup window
Answer: A

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NO.13 What are the components of a Logical Volume Manager (LVM)?
A. Physical volumes, volume groups, logical volumes
B. Physical groups, volume groups, logical volumes
C. Physical groups, volume groups, logical groups
D. Physical blocks, volume groups, logical groups
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which disk connectivity option supports the highest data transfer rate?
A. SATA
B. SCSI
C. IDE
D. ATA
Answer: A

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NO.15 A business has a recovery point objective (RPO) of nine hours. What does this RPO mean in the event
of a disaster?
A. No more than nine hours of production data can be lost
B. Restore from backup must occur within nine hours
C. Production must be resumed within nine hours
D. A backup copy of the production data must be obtained within nine hours
Answer: A

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NO.16 What is recovery point objective?
A. Maximum allowable time to fully recover an application
B. Actual time that it takes to recover all data
C. Amount of data loss that is acceptable by the business
D. Length of time that backups are kept for recovery purposes
Answer: C

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NO.17 A full backup of a file system is performed once a week on Saturday and cumulative backups are
performed on all other days. Backups start at 20:00 with a two-hour window. Data on the file system
changes every day.
How many backups are required to perform a full system restore as of Friday morning?
A. 2
B. 6
C. 1
D. 7
Answer: A

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NO.18 What is a benefit of deploying a separate storage node in the backup environment?
A. Reduced number of backups
B. Increased media utilization
C. Improved security and access control
D. Consolidate backup servers
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which type of backup should be used to create a backup copy offline without disrupting I/O operations
on a production volume?
A. Cumulative backup
B. Incremental backup
C. Full backup
D. Synthetic full backup
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which statement defines retention period?
A. Amount of time available for restoring a particular version of a backup dataset
B. Amount of time available for overwriting a volume containing backups
C. Period of time in which a backup must be restored
D. Amount of time allocated for full system recovery
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: E10-001
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Information Storage and Management Exam Version 2)
Questions et réponses: 200 Q&As

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NO.1 Which operation is performed while creating a VM snapshot?
A. Create a delta file to record changes to the virtual disk since the session is activated
B. Capture the configuration data of a VM to create an identical copy of the VM
C. Create a journal volume to update changes to the snapshot
D. Create a Gold
copy of the snapshot before copying changes to the virtual disk
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which cache management algorithm is based on the assumption that data will not be requested by the
host when it has not been accessed for a while?
A. LRU
B. HWM
C. LWM
D. MRU
Answer: A

EMC   E10-001   E10-001

NO.3 Which host component eliminates the need to deploy separate adapters for FC and Ethernet
communications?
A. Converged network adapter
B. TCP Offload Engine NIC
C. FCIP bridging adapter
D. iSCSI host bus adapter
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which cloud computing capability enables monitoring and reporting resource usage?
A. Metering
B. Pooling
C. Self-service requesting
D. Publishing
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is needed to perform a non-disruptive migration of virtual machines (VMs) between hypervisors?
A. Hypervisors must have access to the same storage volume
B. Physical machines running hypervisors must have the same configuration
C. Hypervisors must be running within the same physical machine
D. Both hypervisors must have the same IP address
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which EMC product provides the capability to recover data up to any point-in-time?
A. RecoverPoint
B. NetWorker
C. Avamar
D. Data Domain
Answer: A

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NO.7 An organization performs copy on first access (CoFA) replication to create a local replica of application
data. To perform a successful restore, what should be considered?
A. Source devices must be healthy
B. Save location size must be larger than the size of all source devices
C. Save location size must be equal to the size of all source devices
D. All changes to the source and replica must be discarded before the restore starts
Answer: A

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NO.8 What defines the time taken to position the read/write head across the platter with a radial movement
in a disk drive?
A. Seek time
B. Rotational latency
C. Data transfer time
D. Service time
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which cloud computing characteristic enables consumers to grow and shrink the demand for
resources dynamically?
A. Rapid elasticity
B. Resource pooling
C. Measured service
D. On-demand self-service
Answer: A

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NO.10 What does the area ID of the FC address identify.?
A. Group of ports within a switch
B. An individual port within a fabric
C. Location of the name server within the fabric
D. Unique number provided to each switch in the fabric
Answer: A

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NO.11 What is a benefit of cloud computing over traditional computing?
A. Reduces the time to provision and deploy new applications
B. Eliminates consumer's IT operational expenditure
C. Enables the use of proprietary APIs to access IT resources
D. Lowers migration cost and prevents vendor lock-in
Answer: A

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NO.12 What is a function of unified management software in cloud computing?
A. Defining cloud service attributes
B. Consolidating infrastructure resources scattered across one or more data centers
C. Metering based on usage of resources by the consumer
D. Providing an interface to consumers to request cloud services
Answer: A

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NO.13 What describes a landing zone in a disk drive?
A. Area on which the read/write head rests
B. Area where the read/write head lands to access data
C. Area where the data is buffered before writing to platters
D. Area where sector-specific information is stored on the disk
Answer: A

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NO.14 What is a characteristic of unified storage?
A. Supports multiple protocols for data access and managed through a single management interface
B. Supports a common protocol for data access and managed through a unified management interface
C. Provides compute, storage, and network virtualization products in one solution
D. Stores all data in the form of objects and managed through a unified management interface
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which iSCSI name requires an organization to own a registered domain name?
A. IQN
B. EUI
C. WWNN
D. WWPN
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which statement describes a denial of service attack?
A. Prevents authorized users from accessing the resources and services
B. Prohibits attempts to repair the resources and services after an attack
C. Attempts to provide false information by impersonating someone s identity
D. Prevents unauthorized users to access the resources and services
Answer: A

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NO.17 What is a key security consideration when a NAS device enables sharing of the same data among
UNIX and Microsoft Windows users?
A. NAS device must map UNIX permissions to Windows and vice versa
B. NAS defines and maintains ownership to the objects
C. NIS server must separately maintain SIDs for UNIX and Windows environments
D. Object permissions are not defined in advance and assigned dynamically
Answer: A

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NO.18 What is an accurate statement about the Data Center Bridging Exchange protocol?
A. Enables Converged Enhanced Ethernet (CEE) devices to convey and configure their features with
other CEE devices
B. Creates virtual FCoE links over an existing Ethernet network to transport FC frames over virtual links
independently
C. Enables an FCoE switch to send signals to other FCoE switches that need to stop or slow down their
transmissions
D. Enables an FCoE switch to transport both TCP/IP and FC frames over a single virtual FCoE link
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which data center requirement refers to applying mechanisms that ensure data is stored and retrieved
as it was received?
A. Integrity
B. Availability
C. Security
D. Performance
Answer: A

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NO.20 What is a key benefit of virtualization?
A. Improved resource utilization
B. Improved performance
C. Enhanced interoperability
D. Unlimited resource scaling
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: E20-891
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Backup Recovery Solutions Expert Exam for Technology Architects)
Questions et réponses: 118 Q&As

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NO.1 A customer has implemented EMC Data Domain Boost for Oracle RMAN software in their
environment and are successfully backing up several Oracle servers. Backups are directed to a local
Data Domain system and a second Data Domain system was configured at their disaster recovery
site as a target for replication.
What needs to be done to create copies of the backup data on the remote system that are tracked
and recoverable by RMAN?
A. Modify the RMAN script to include backup copies
B. Configure directory replication between the Data Domain systems
C. Configure Mtree replication between the Data Domain systems
D. Create a second RMAN script for the second Data Domain system
Answer: A

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NO.2 You are planning an MS SQL backup solution for a customer using EMC NetWorker and NMM
without a proxy client. Which user privilege must be configured on NetWorker?
A. Add the NMM client to the NetWorker Administrator user group
B. Add the NetWorker Administrator to the NMM remote user setting
C. Add the NMM client to the MS Windows administrators user group
D. Add the NMM client to the Operators user group
Answer: A

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NO.3 A customer has an EMC Data Domain appliance that has reached 90% of maximum capacity.
The customer does not want to purchase any additional storage.
What will increase the average available capacity of the Data Domain appliance?
A. Decrease the backup retention period
B. Decrease the cleaning frequency
C. Increase the snapshot expiration period
D. Increase the number of streams
Answer: B

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NO.4 A customer recently integrated EMC Avamar into their existing NetWorker datazone. After
creating a deduplication client and defining the NetWorker deduplication node, the backup is
started. However, the backup failed.
What must be done to perform a successful backup?
A. Create a local AFTD on the storage node to store deduplication metadata
B. Create an AFTD on the Avamar server to store deduplication metadata
C. Create an AFTD to store the deduplication indexes
D. Create an AFTD to store the additional bootstrap information
Answer: A

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NO.5 A customer is planning to use EMC NetWorker integrated with Data Domain to backup their
enterprise. Data Domain will be used to replicate backups to an offsite location to satisfy regulatory
requirements. The customer is concerned about the difficulty in managing their backups and
backup clones with two interfaces.
What could be done to simplify the management of backups and clones?
A. Configure DD Boost with NetWorker and use clone-controlled replication.
B. Configure pre and post scripts to handle the cloning.
C. Create one backup job for cloning and one additional job for local copies.
D. Create scripts to run through the CLI to handle daily cloning.
Answer: A

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NO.6 An existing EMC Data Domain customer wants to know the way to integrate Data Domain
with RMAN to their tape library. How would this integration take place?
A. Use RMAN and Media Manager Layer to backup the application
B. Use RMAN with NFS to write to tape
C. Use RMAN with DD Boost to move data to the tape library
D. Use RMAN with dNFS to write to the tape library
Answer: A

EMC examen   E20-891 examen   E20-891

NO.7 An EMC customer is currently backing up their Microsoft Exchange database to an EMC
Avamar server. The backups are setup to full on Friday, skip on Sunday, and only
transaction logs backed up the rest of the week. The customer would like to integrate Data Domain
to Avamar and run the database backups to the Data Domain system.
If a Data Domain system is deployed on Sunday, which type of backup runs on the following Monday?
A. Full database backup
B. Transaction logs backup
C. Backups will be skipped
D. Level 1 backup of the database
Answer: A

EMC examen   E20-891   E20-891   E20-891

NO.8 An EMC NetWorker customer wants to add their new Microsoft SharePoint distributed farm to
their backup environment. The farm contains three servers. One server contains the web front-end
and the other two servers each contain two SQL databases.
How is the number of the client resources determined?
A. One resource for each server in the farm
B. One resource for each SQL database in the farm and one for the web front-end server
C. Only one resource for the entire farm
D. One resource for each SQL database in the farm
Answer: A

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NO.9 While installing an EMC Avamar deduplication node in a NetWorker backup solution, the
Microsoft Windows client backup jobs fail to run. Which process should be running on the client
during the backup?
A. nsravtar
B. nsravamar
C. nsrim
D. nsrndmpsv
Answer: A

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NO.10 An EMC NetWorker customer has just started running backups of their new Microsoft
SharePoint distributed farm. They are concerned that their web applications are not being backed
up.
What can you tell the customer about backing up web applications?
A. Web applications are backed up with the corresponding content database
B. Add the web application name to the save set field for the client hosting the content database
C. Create a separate client resource for each web application
D. Web applications must be backed up with a file system backup method
Answer: A

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2014年3月30日星期日

Le dernier examen EMC E22-250 gratuit Télécharger

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Code d'Examen: E22-250
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Network Management - Smarts Administration)
Questions et réponses: 174 Q&As

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NO.1 There is a firewall between the servers on which the Domain Managers are running. You are
troubleshooting a connectivity issue with the Smarts deployment. Which command is used to verify the
TCP ports on which the Domain Managers are listening?
A.brcontrol
B.sm_ping
C.sm_service show
D.sm_what
Answer:A

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NO.2 What does the context filter determine when defining a tool?
A.If the tool is grayed out
B.If the tool is visible
C.The acceptable state for tool use
D.Which attributes are passed
Answer:B

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NO.3 A root-cause problem is presented that states one of a router interfaces is down. What is the
underlying issue?
A.Router interface is administratively down and operationally down.
B.Router interface is administratively up and operationally down.
C.Router is completely down.
D.SNMP Agent on that router is not responding.
Answer:B

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NO.4 Which sm_server parameters are required when starting a Service Assurance Manager?
A.--name and --config
B.--name and --port
C.--server and --config
D.--server and --port
Answer:A

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NO.5 Which relationship exists between a card and its ports?
A.ConnectedVia/ConnectedTo
B.PackagedIn/Packages
C.Realizes/RealizedBy
D.Underlying/LayeredOver
Answer:C

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NO.6 The EMEA NOC, America NOC, and Asia NOC each has visibility to regional NOCs. Each regional
NOC implements one or more Smarts applications and uses its own Smarts Service Assurance Manager
to provide an end-to-end view of the region. What needs to be configured to architect EMC Smarts
solutions to view all regions?
A.Hierarchical SAM configuration
B.Smarts Aggregation Adapter
C.Smarts Topology Split Manager
D.Standard SAM configuration
Answer:A

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button. The current weights.conf file contains: ClassWeight ICIM_ManagedElement 1
Which impact value would be calculated for this Router Down problem?
A.102
B.1000
C.1002
D.10002
Answer:C

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NO.8 A customer's environment has many different networks that are being managed by Smarts. As a result
of this there are many DuplicateIP notifications. What is an effect on Smarts of having DuplicateIP
notifications?
A.Each duplicated IP object is unmanaged.
B.IP Domain Manager polls twice as often.
C.Network connections will not be represented correctly.
D.Root-cause analysis of other events will be correlated to these Duplicate IPs.
Answer:A

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NO.9 Which information is needed by IP Availability Manager to communicate with an EMC Celerra NAS in
addition to its IP address?
A.Control Station port number
B.Data Mover port number
C.Port number
D.Username, password
Answer:D

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NO.10 An organization is looking for a way to effectively scale in an intricate heterogeneous IT environment.
Which part of the Smarts A3 architecture will minimize the manual effort to accomplish this goal?
A.Automation
B.Abstraction
C.Analytics
D.Analysis
Answer:B

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NO.11 Oper1, a user, would like to share a saved map with other users. What does the admin need to do?
A.Copy the saved map to \smarts\local\conf\console folder on the Global Manager
B.Copy the saved map to \smarts\local\conf\consoles folder on the Global Manager
C.Copy the saved map to \smarts\local\console folder on the Global Manager
D.Copy the saved map to \smarts\local\consoles folder on the Global Manager
Answer:D

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NO.12 A switch appears down in Service Assurance Manager. After trying to troubleshoot the problem, an
operator finds out that the switch has been removed from service. Why didn't this switch automatically
become Unmanaged in Smarts?
A.IP Availability Manager needs to be restarted to remove this switch.
B.Other devices that were connected to this switch are still reachable by Smarts.
C.This switch requires rediscovery.
D.Unmanaging devices is a manual process.
Answer:D

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NO.13 At a customer site, many different networks are being managed by a single IP domain, which is
generating many DuplicateIP alerts in SAM. How can you avoid these DuplicateIP alerts?
A.Filter the Duplicate network
B.Use a different IP-AM for each network
C.Use a different SAM for each network
D.Use IP Tagging
Answer:D

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NO.14 Which Performance Monitor Setting will give early warning that an interface is too busy?
A.IPThreshold
B.Restart Trap Window
C.UnicastThreshold
D.UtilizationThreshold
Answer:D

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NO.15 Click the Exhibit button. A router monitored by these polling settings has just been polled, and the
operational status of Interface A is DOWN. Ten seconds after the initial poll, the interface operational
status changes to UP. How long will it take from the last poll for the IP Domain Manager to set this
interface's status to UP?
A.15 minutes
B.700 milliseconds
C.9 seconds
D.900 minutes
Answer:A

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NO.16 Which relationship of a switch is expanded to view the instances of its ports, in the Topology Browser?
A.ComposedOf
B.HostConnectionPoints
C.Overlaying
D.PartOf
Answer:A

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NO.17 A new Windows 2003 Enterprise Server from Vendor XYZ needs to be discovered. The Smarts admin
created an entry for this server in oid2type_Field.conf. .1.3.6.1.4.1.9999.1.12 { TYPE = Switch VENDOR
= XYZ MODEL = Widget5550 CERTIFICATION = TEMPLATE INSTRUMENTATION: Interface-Fault =
MIB2 Interface-Performance = MIB2 } After discovering this new server, which class will it be part of?
A.Host
B.It will not be added to the topology
C.Node
D.Switch
Answer:D

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NO.18 To ensure that Discovery probes every IP address on a Class B IP network you set the Discovery filter
to 10.1.*.*. . However, you see that most devices in that range have not been discovered. Why?
A.MaximumHostBits parameter in discovery.conf is set to 8 by default.
B.Some of those IP addresses do not exist.
C.The systems have been throttled and placed on the Pending Device List.
D.You have run out of licenses.
Answer:A

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NO.19 Which command can be used in a script that will stop the Service Assurance Manager SMARTS-SA?
A.dmquit -s SMARTS-SA --force
B.dmquit -n SMARTS-SA --norestore
C.sm_quit -n SMARTS-SA --norestore
D.sm_quit -s SMARTS-SA --ignore
Answer:A

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NO.20 Which relationship exists between a card and its ports?
A.ConnectedTo/ConnectedVia
B.HostsAccessPoints/HostedBy
C.MemberSystems/MemberOf
D.Realizes/RealizedBy
Answer:D

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