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Code d'Examen: 156-726.77
Nom d'Examen: CheckPoint (Secure Web Gateway)
Questions et réponses: 66 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 156-915.76
Nom d'Examen: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Security Expert Update Blade)
Questions et réponses: 324 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following actions applies to a Risk Level of 1 - Very Low?
A. Can cause data leakage or malware infection without user knowledge
B. Can bypass security or hide identities
C. Potentially not business related
D. Usually business related, with low risk
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following actions applies to a Risk Level of 5 - Critical?
A. Can bypass security or hide identities
B. Potentially not business related
C. Can be misused and cause data leakage or malware infection
D. Can cause data leakage or malware infection without user knowledge
Answer: A

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NO.3 Who is best able to provide the justification for allowing access to some higher risk
applications?
A. The Help Desk
B. The Security Administrator
C. The User
D. The Group Manager
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following actions applies to a Risk Level of 4 - High?
A. Can cause data leakage or malware infection without user knowledge
B. Can bypass security or hide identities
C. Potentially not business related
D. Can be misused and cause data leakage or malware infection
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following actions applies to a Risk Level of 2 - Low?
A. Potentially not business related
B. Can bypass security or hide identities
C. Can be misused and cause data leakage or malware infection
D. Can cause data leakage or malware infection without user knowledge
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following statement is true regarding SmartEvent Intro? SmartEvent Intro:
A. requires no license, only a contract
B. has been discontinued
C. is free, and therefore requires no license
D. only view events from one blade
Answer: D

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NO.7 When analyzing Application Control data with SmartEvent, using the predefined queries, how
are the events grouped? In order of:
A. date/time
B. rule applied
C. risk
D. number of megabytes used
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following actions applies to a Risk Level of 3 - Medium?
A. Potentially not business related
B. Can cause data leakage or malware infection without user knowledge
C. Can be misused and cause data leakage or malware infection
D. Can bypass security or hide identities
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 156-315.13
Nom d'Examen: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Security Expert)
Questions et réponses: 639 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 156-215-71
Nom d'Examen: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Security Administrator R71)
Questions et réponses: 465 Q&As

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NO.1 Using IPS, how do you notify the Security Administrator that malware is scanning specific ports?
By enabling:
A. Malware Scan protection
B. Sweep Scan protection
C. Host Port Scan
D. Malicious Code Protector
Answer: B

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NO.2 _______________ manages Standard Reports and allows the administrator to specify
automatic uploads of reports to a central FTP server.
A. SmartDashboard Log Consolidator
B. SmartReporter
C. Security Management Server
D. SmartReporter Database
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which Check Point product is used to create and save changes to a Log Consolidation Policy?
A. SmartReporter Client
B. Security Management Server
C. SmartDashboard Log Consolidator
D. SmartEvent Server
Answer: C

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NO.4 You have an internal FTP server, and you allow downloading, but not uploading. Assume
Network Address Translation is set up correctly, and you want to add an inbound rule with:
Source: Any Destination: FTP server Service: FTP resources object.
How do you configure the FTP resource object and the action column in the rule to achieve this goal?
A. Enable only the "Get" method in the FTP Resource Properties, and use this method in the rule,
with action accept.
B. Enable only the "Get" method in the FTP Resource Properties and use it in the rule, with action
drop.
C. Enable both "Put" and "Get" methods in the FTP Resource Properties and use them in the rule,
with action drop.
D. Disable "Get" and "Put" methods in the FTP Resource Properties and use it in the rule, with
action accept.
E. Enable only the "Put" method in the FTP Resource Properties and use it in the rule, with action
accept.
Answer: A

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NO.5 You are preparing computers for a new ClusterXL deployment. For your cluster, you plan to use
four machines with the following configurations:
Cluster Member 1: OS: SecurePlatform, NICs: QuadCard, memory: 1 GB, Security Gateway only,
version: R76
Cluster Member 2: OS: SecurePlatform, NICs: 4 Intel 3Com, memory: 1 GB, Security Gateway only,
version: R76
Cluster Member 3: OS: SecurePlatform, NICs: 4 other manufacturers, memory: 512 MB, Security
Gateway only, version: R76
Security Management Server: MS Windows 2003, NIC. Intel NIC (1), Security Gateway and primary
Security Management Server installed, version: R76
Are these machines correctly configured for a ClusterXL deployment?
A. No, the Security Gateway cannot be installed on the Security Management Pro Server.
B. No, Cluster Member 3 does not have the required memory.
C. Yes, these machines are configured correctly for a ClusterXL deployment.
D. No, the Security Management Server is not running the same operating system as the cluster
members.
Answer: C

CheckPoint   156-315.13 examen   156-315.13 examen

NO.6 You want only RAS signals to pass through H.323 Gatekeeper and other H.323 protocols,
passing directly between end points. Which routing mode in the VoIP Domain Gatekeeper do you
select?
A. Direct
B. Direct and Call Setup
C. Call Setup
D. Call Setup and Call Control
Answer: A

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NO.7 Based on the following information, which of the statements below is FALSE?
A DLP Rule Base has the following conditions: Data Type =Password Protected File Source=My
Organization Destination=Outside My Organization Protocol=Any Action=Ask User Exception: Data
Type=Any, Source=Research and Development (R&D) Destination=Pratner1.com Protocol=Any All
other rules are set to Detect. UserCheck is enabled and installed on all client machines.
A. When a user from R&D sends an e-mail with a password protected PDF file as an attachment to
xyz@partner1 .com, he will be prompted by UserCheck.
B. When a user from Finance sends an e-mail with an encrypted ZIP file as an attachment to. He will
be prompted by UserCheck.
C. Another rule is added: Source = R&D, Destination = partner1.com, Protocol = Any, Action = Inform.
When a user from R&D sends an e-mail with an encrypted ZIP file as an attachment to, he will be
prompted by UserCheck.
D. When a user from R&D sends an e-mail with an encrypted ZIP file as an attachment to , he will
NOT be prompted by UserCheck.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following statements accurately describes the migrate command?
A. upgrade_export is used when upgrading the Security Gateway, and allows certain files to be
included or excluded before exporting.
B. upgrade_export stores network-configuration data, objects, global properties, and the database
revisions prior to upgrading the Security Management Server.
C. Used primarily when upgrading the Security Management Server, migrate stores all object
databases and the conf directories for importing to a newer version of the Security Gateway
D. Used when upgrading the Security Gateway, upgrade_export includes modified files, such as in
the directories /lib and /conf.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 156-727.77
Nom d'Examen: CheckPoint (Threat Prevention)
Questions et réponses: 53 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 156-315.75
Nom d'Examen: CheckPoint (Check Point Security Expert R75)
Questions et réponses: 629 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 156-215.76
Nom d'Examen: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Security Administrator - GAiA)
Questions et réponses: 358 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of these statements describes the Check Point IPS software blade?
A. Blocks or limits usage of web applications
B. A worldwide collaborative security network
C. Prevents vulnerability exploits
D. Controls access to web sites based on category
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which TCP ports allow LDAP users to communicate with the Account Unit?
A. 689 clear, or 336 encrypted
B. 636 clear, or 389 encrypted
C. 336 clear, or 689 encrypted
D. 389 clear, or 636 encrypted
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which software blades are characteristic to a Threat Prevention Appliance?
A. Anti-Virus, Anti-Bot, IPS, Identity Awareness
B. Anti-Virus, Anti-Bot, IPS, URL Filtering, Identity Awareness
C. Anti-Virus, Anti-Bot, IPS, Application Control, URL Filtering, Identity Awareness
D. Anti-Virus, Anti-Bot, IPS, URL Filtering, Identity Awareness, SmartEvent
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of these statements describes the Check Point ThreatCloud?
A. A worldwide collaborative security network
B. Prevents vulnerability exploits
C. Controls access to web sites based on category
D. Blocks or limits usage of web applications
Answer: A

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NO.5 Check Point Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) is available in two deployment methods, as a
blade and also a dedicated appliance. What is the dedicated appliance called?
A. InterSpect Appliance
B. IPS-1 Sensor
C. Smart-1 Appliance
D. Power-1 Appliance
Answer: B

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NO.6 Can the Anti-Bot software blade be enabled on a Secure Web Gateway as well?
A. Yes, this is an optional blade for the Secure Web Gateway.
B. No, Anti-Bot needs to be part of the Threat Prevention Appliance.
C. Yes, it can be enabled if IPS is enabled as well.
D. Yes, Anti-Bot is always enabled together with Identity Awareness.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of these is a Check Point Firewall attribute?
A. Malicious P2P application protection
B. Buffer overflow prevention
C. Worm injection blocking
D. Granular access control
Answer: D

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NO.8 What is the minimum amount of RAM needed for a Threat Prevention Appliance?
A. 4 GB
B. It depends on the number of software blades enabled.
C. 2 GB with GAiA in 32-bit mode, 4 GB with GAiA in 64-bit mode
D. 6 GB
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 156-215.76
Nom d'Examen: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Security Administrator - GAiA)
Questions et réponses: 358 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 156-915-70
Nom d'Examen: CheckPoint (CCSE-R70-Upgrade)
Questions et réponses: 243 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 156-315.13
Nom d'Examen: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Security Expert)
Questions et réponses: 639 Q&As

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NO.1 What is a task of the IPS Event Analysis Server?
A. Assign a severity level to an event.
B. Display the received events.
C. Forward what is known as an event to the IPS Event Analysis server
D. Analyze each IPS log entry as it enters the Log server.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following is a supported deployment for Connectra?
A. IPSO 4.9 build 88
B. VMWare ESX
C. Solaris 10
D. Windows server 2007
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which Security Servers can perform authentication tasks, but CANNOT perform
content security
tasks?
A. RLOGIN
B. FTP
C. HTTPS
D. HTTP
Answer: A

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NO.4 You want VPN traffic to match packets from internal interfaces- You also want the
traffic to exit the
Security Gateway bound for all site-to-site VPN Communities, including Remote Access
Communities.
How should you configure the VPN match rule?
A. Communities > communities
B. Internal_clear > External_Clear
C. Internal_clear > All_GwTogw
D. Internal_clear > All_communities
Answer: D

CheckPoint examen   certification 156-915-70   certification 156-915-70

NO.5 Using IPS, how do you notify the Security Administrator that malware is scanning
specific ports?
By enabling:
A. Malware Scan protection
B. Sweep Scan protection
C. Host Port Scan
D. Malicious Code Protector
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is the purpose of the pre-defined exclusions Included with Eventia Analyzer and
IPS Event
Analysis R7P?
A. To give samples of how to write your own exclusion.
B. As a base for starling and building exclusions
C. To allow Eventia Analyzer and IPS Event Analysis R70 to function property with all other
R70 release
devices
D. To avoid incorrect event generation by the default IPS event definition, a scenario that
may occur in
deployments that include Security Gateways of versions prior to R70
Answer: D

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NO.7 Laura notices the Microsoft Visual Basic kill Bits protection is sent to inactive. She
wants to set the
micro soft Visual Basic Kill bits protection and all other low performance impact protection to
prevent. She
asks her manager for approval and he stated she can turn these on. But he Laura to make
sure no high
performance impact protections are limited on while changing this setting.
Using the output below, how would Laura change the default-protection on performance
impact
protections classified as low from inactive to prevent while still meeting her other criteria?
A. Go to profiles > Default_protection and unlock Do not activate protections with
performance impact to
medium or above
B. Go to profiles > Default_protection and select Do not activate protections with performance
impact to
low or above
C. Go to profiles > Default_protection and select Do not activate protections with
performance impact to
medium or above
D. Go to profiles > Default_protection and unlock Do not activate protections with
performance impact to
high or above
Answer: C

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NO.8 What are the SmartProvisioning Policy Status indicators?
A. OK, Down, Up, Synchronized
B. OK. Waiting, Out of Sync, Not Installed, Not communicating
C. OK, Unknown, Not Installed, May be out of date
D. OK, Waiting, Unknown, Not Installed, Not Updated, May be out of date
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: 156-726.77
Nom d'Examen: CheckPoint (Secure Web Gateway)
Questions et réponses: 66 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 156-915.76
Nom d'Examen: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Security Expert Update Blade)
Questions et réponses: 324 Q&As

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NO.1 During the Application Control Discovery process, what is the best source of information for
decisions on blocking or not blocking an application?
A. The Help Desk
B. The Group Manager
C. The User
D. The Security Administrator
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following actions applies to a Risk Level of 3 - Medium?
A. Potentially not business related
B. Can cause data leakage or malware infection without user knowledge
C. Can be misused and cause data leakage or malware infection
D. Can bypass security or hide identities
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following actions applies to a Risk Level of 5 - Critical?
A. Can bypass security or hide identities
B. Potentially not business related
C. Can be misused and cause data leakage or malware infection
D. Can cause data leakage or malware infection without user knowledge
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following actions applies to a Risk Level of 1 - Very Low?
A. Can cause data leakage or malware infection without user knowledge
B. Can bypass security or hide identities
C. Potentially not business related
D. Usually business related, with low risk
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following actions applies to a Risk Level of 4 - High?
A. Can cause data leakage or malware infection without user knowledge
B. Can bypass security or hide identities
C. Potentially not business related
D. Can be misused and cause data leakage or malware infection
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following actions applies to a Risk Level of 2 - Low?
A. Potentially not business related
B. Can bypass security or hide identities
C. Can be misused and cause data leakage or malware infection
D. Can cause data leakage or malware infection without user knowledge
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following statement is true regarding SmartEvent Intro? SmartEvent Intro:
A. requires no license, only a contract
B. has been discontinued
C. is free, and therefore requires no license
D. only view events from one blade
Answer: D

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NO.8 When analyzing Application Control data with SmartEvent, using the predefined queries, how
are the events grouped? In order of:
A. date/time
B. rule applied
C. risk
D. number of megabytes used
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: 156-315.75
Nom d'Examen: CheckPoint (Check Point Security Expert R75)
Questions et réponses: 629 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 156-915.76
Nom d'Examen: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Security Expert Update Blade)
Questions et réponses: 324 Q&As

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NO.1 You just upgraded to R76 and are using the IPS Software Blade You want to enable all critical
protections while keeping the rate of false positively very low. How can you achieve this?
A. The new IPS system is based on policies, but it has no ability to calculate or change the
confidence level, so it always has a high rate of false positives.
B. This can't be achieved; activating any IPS system always causes a high rate of false positives.
C. The new IPS system is based on policies and gives you the ability to activate all checks with critical
severity and a high confidence level.
D. As in SmartDefense, this can be achieved by activating all the critical checks manually.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which SmartEvent, what is the Correlation Unit's function?
A. Invoke and define automatic reactions and add events to the database
B. Assign seventy levels to events
C. Display received threats and tune the Events Policy
D. Analyze log entries, looking for Event Policy patterns
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-915.76 examen   156-915.76 examen

NO.3 In configure a client to property log in to the user portal using a certificate, the Administrator
MUST:
A. Create an internal user in the admin portal.
B. Install an R76 internal Certificate Authority certificate.
C. Create a client certificate from Smart Dashboard
D. Store the client certificate on the SSL VPN Gateway
Answer: C

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NO.4 To force clients to use integrity Security Workspace when accessing sensitive applications,
the Administrator can configure Connectra:
A. Via protection levels
B. To implement integrity Clientless Security
C. To force the user to re-authenticate at login
D. Without a special setting. Secure Workspace is automatically configured.
Answer: A

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NO.5 The default port for browser access to the Management Portal is
A. 4433
B. 4343
C. 8080
D. 443
Answer: A

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NO.6 Refer to the network topology below. You have IPS Software Blades active on the Security
Gateways sglondon, sgla, and sgny, but still experience attacks on the Web server in the New York
DMZ. How is this possible?
A. AH of these options are possible.
B. The attacker may have used a bunch of evasion techniques like using escape sequence instead of
cleartext commands. It is also possible that there are entry points not shown in the network layout,
like rogue access points.
C. Since other Gateways do not have IPS activated, attacks may originate from their network
without anyone noticing.
D. An IPS may combine different detection technologies, but is dependent on regular signature
updates and well-turned anomaly algorithms. Even if this is accomplished, no technology can offer
100 % protection.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following is NOT an Smartevent event-triggered Automatic Reaction?
A. Mail
B. Block Access
C. External Script
D. SNMP Trap
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which Remote Desktop protocols are supported natively in SSL VPN?
A. Microsoft RDP only
B. AT&T VNC and Microsoft RDP
C. Citrix ICA and Microsoft RDP
D. AT&T VNC, Citrix ICA and Microsoft RDP
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: 156-726.77
Nom d'Examen: CheckPoint (Secure Web Gateway)
Questions et réponses: 66 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 156-315.65
Nom d'Examen: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Expert NGX R65)
Questions et réponses: 205 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following actions applies to a Risk Level of 4 - High?
A. Can cause data leakage or malware infection without user knowledge
B. Can bypass security or hide identities
C. Potentially not business related
D. Can be misused and cause data leakage or malware infection
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following statement is true regarding SmartEvent Intro? SmartEvent Intro:
A. requires no license, only a contract
B. has been discontinued
C. is free, and therefore requires no license
D. only view events from one blade
Answer: D

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NO.3 When analyzing Application Control data with SmartEvent, using the predefined queries, how
are the events grouped? In order of:
A. date/time
B. rule applied
C. risk
D. number of megabytes used
Answer: D

CheckPoint examen   certification 156-726.77   156-726.77   certification 156-726.77   156-726.77 examen

NO.4 During the Application Control Discovery process, what is the best source of information for
decisions on blocking or not blocking an application?
A. The Help Desk
B. The Group Manager
C. The User
D. The Security Administrator
Answer: C

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NO.5 Using Event Viewer in SmartEvent, a Security Administrator discovers that the Application
Blade has detected three applications: YouTube, Tor, and PC in IE. Of these three applications, which
would be considered the most dangerous?
A. Tor
B. PC in IE
C. YouTube
Answer: A

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NO.6 Who is best able to provide the justification for allowing access to some higher risk
applications?
A. The Help Desk
B. The Security Administrator
C. The User
D. The Group Manager
Answer: C

certification CheckPoint   156-726.77 examen   156-726.77 examen

NO.7 Which of the following actions applies to a Risk Level of 5 - Critical?
A. Can bypass security or hide identities
B. Potentially not business related
C. Can be misused and cause data leakage or malware infection
D. Can cause data leakage or malware infection without user knowledge
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following actions applies to a Risk Level of 3 - Medium?
A. Potentially not business related
B. Can cause data leakage or malware infection without user knowledge
C. Can be misused and cause data leakage or malware infection
D. Can bypass security or hide identities
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 156-515
Nom d'Examen: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Security Expert Plus NGX)
Questions et réponses: 70 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 156-706
Nom d'Examen: CheckPoint (CPCS - PointSec 6.1)
Questions et réponses: 90 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 156-315
Nom d'Examen: CheckPoint (Check Point Security Administration NGX II (156-315.1)......)
Questions et réponses: 205 Q&As

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NO.1 Which Check Point QoS feature is used to dynamically allocate relative portions of
available bandwidth?
A. Guarantees
B. Differentiated Services
C. Limits
D. Weighted Fair Queuing
E. Low Latency Queing
Answer: D

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NO.2 You set up a mesh VPN community, so your internal networks can access your
partner's network, and vice versa. Your Security Policy encrypts only FTP and
HTTP traffic through a VPN tunnel. All other traffic among your internal and
partner networks is sent in clear text. How do you configure the VPN community?
A. Disable "accept all encrypted traffic", and put FTP and HTTP in the Excluded services
in the Community object. Add a rule in the Security Policy for services FTP and http,
with the Community object in the VPN field.
B. Disable "accept all encrypted traffic" in the Community, and add FTP and HTTP
services to the Security Policy, with that Community object in the VPN field.
C. Enable "accept all encrypted traffic", but put FTP and HTTP in the Excluded services
in the Community. Add a rule in the Security Policy, with services FTP and http, and the
Community object in the VPN field.
D. Put FTP and HTTP in the Excluded services in the Community object. Then add a rule
in the Security Policy to allow Any as the service with the Community object in the VPN
field.
Answer: B

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NO.3 You are preparing to configure your VoIP Domain Gatekeeper object. Which two other object should you
have created first?
A. An object to represent the IP phone network, AND an object to represent the host on
which the proxy is installed.
B. An object to represent the PSTN phone network, AND an object to represent the IP
phone network
C. An object to represent the IP phone network, AND an object to represent the host on
which the gatekeeper is installed.
D. An object to represent the Q.931 service origination host, AND an object to represent
the H.245 termination host
E. An object to represent the call manager, AND an object to represent the host on which
the transmission router is installed.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Exhibit:
The exhibit displays the cphaprob state command output from a New Mode High
Availability cluster member.
Which machine has the highest priority?
A. 192.168.1.2, since its number is 2.
B. 192.168.1.1, because its number is 1.
C. This output does not indicate which machine has the highest priority.
D. 192.168.1.2, because its stats is active
Answer: B

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NO.5 Exhibit:
KillTest is using a mesh VPN Community to create a site-to-site VPN. The VPN
properties in this mesh Community is displayed in the exhibit.
Which of the following statements are true?
A. If Jack changes the settings, "Perform key exchange encryption with" from "3DES" to
"DES", she will enhance the VPN Community's security and reduce encryption overhead.
B. Mrs Bill must change the data-integrity settings for this VPN Community. MD5 is incompatible with
AES.
C. If KillTest changes the setting "Perform IPSec data encryption with" from
"AES-128" to "3DES", Jack will increase the encryption overhead.
D. Her VPN Community will perform IKE Phase 1 key-exchange encryption, using the
longest key VPN-1 NGX supports.
Answer: C

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NO.6 In a distributed VPN-1 Pro NGX environment, where is the Internal Certificate
Authority (ICA) installed?
A. On the Security Gateway
B. Certificate Manager Server
C. On the Policy Server
D. On the Smart View Monitor
E. On the primary SmartCenter Server
Answer: E

CheckPoint examen   156-315   156-315 examen   certification 156-315

NO.7 KillTest .com has many VPN-1 Edge gateways at various branch offices, to allow
VPN-1 SecureClient users to access KillTest .com resources. For security reasons,
KillTest .com's Secure policy requires all Internet traffic initiated behind the
VPN-1 Edge gateways first be inspected by your headquarters' VPN-1 Pro Security
Gateway. How do you configure VPN routing in this star VPN Community?
A. To the Internet an other targets only
B. To the center and other satellites, through the center
C. To the center only
D. To the center, or through the center to other satellites, then to the Internet and other
VPN targets
Answer: D

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NO.8 You work a network administrator for KillTest .com. You configure a Check Point QoS Rule Base with
two rules: an H.323 rule with a weight of 10, and the Default
Rule with a weight of 10. The H.323 rule includes a per-connection guarantee of 384
Kbps, and a per-connection limit of 512 Kbps. The per-connection guarantee is for
four connections, and no additional connections are allowed in the Action
properties. If traffic passing through the QoS Module matches both rules, which of
the following is true?
A. Neither rule will be allocated more than 10% of available bandwidth.
B. The H.323 rule will consume no more than 2048 Kbps of available bandwidth.
C. 50% of available bandwidth will be allocated to the H.323 rule.
D. 50% of available bandwidth will be allocated to the Default Rule
E. Each H.323 connection will receive at least 512 Kbps of bandwidth.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 156-315.13
Nom d'Examen: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Security Expert)
Questions et réponses: 639 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 156-910.70
Nom d'Examen: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Security Administrator R70 Upgrade)
Questions et réponses: 384 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 156-715-70
Nom d'Examen: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Endpoint Expert R70 (Combined SA, FDE, MI, ME))
Questions et réponses: 374 Q&As

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Code d'Examen: 156-315
Nom d'Examen: CheckPoint (Check Point Security Administration NGX II (156-315.1)......)
Questions et réponses: 205 Q&As

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NO.1 Assume an intruder has compromised your current IKE Phase 1 and Phase 2 keys.
Which of the following options will end the intruder's access, after the next Phase 2
exchange occurs?
A. Phase 3 Key Revocation
B. Perfect Forward Secrecy
C. MD5 Hash Completion
D. SH1 Hash Completion
E. DES Key Reset
Answer: B

CheckPoint examen   156-315   156-315 examen   156-315   certification 156-315   156-315

NO.2 You want only RAS signals to pass through H.323 Gatekeeper and other H.323
protocols, passing directly between end points. Which routing mode in the VoIP
Domain Gatekeeper do you select?
A. Direct
B. Direct and Call Setup
C. Call Setup
D. Call Setup and Call Control
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-315   156-315   certification 156-315   156-315

NO.3 Where can a Security Administator adjust the unit of measurement (bps, Kbps or
Bps), for Check Point QoS bandwidth?
A. Global Properties
B. QoS Class objects
C. Check Point gateway object properties
D. $CPDIR/conf/qos_props.pf
E. Advanced Action options in each QoS rule.
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-315   156-315 examen

NO.4 KillTest .com has many VPN-1 Edge gateways at various branch offices, to allow
VPN-1 SecureClient users to access KillTest .com resources. For security reasons,
KillTest .com's Secure policy requires all Internet traffic initiated behind the
VPN-1 Edge gateways first be inspected by your headquarters' VPN-1 Pro Security
Gateway. How do you configure VPN routing in this star VPN Community?
A. To the Internet an other targets only
B. To the center and other satellites, through the center
C. To the center only
D. To the center, or through the center to other satellites, then to the Internet and other
VPN targets
Answer: D

CheckPoint examen   156-315   156-315 examen   certification 156-315   156-315 examen

NO.5 KillTest is concerned that a denial-of-service (DoS) attack may affect her VPN
Communities. She decides to implement IKE DoS protection. Jack needs to
minimize the performance impact of implementing this new protectdion.
Which of the following configurations is MOST appropriate for Mrs. Bill?
A. Set Support IKE DoS protection from identified source to "Puzzles", and Support IKE
DoS protection from unidentified source to "Stateless"
B. Set Support IKE DoS protection from identified source, and Support IKE DoS
protection from unidentified soruce to "Puzzles"
C. Set Support IKE DoS protection from identified source to "Stateless", and Support
IKE DoS protection from unidentified source to "Puzzles".
D. Set Support IKE DoS protection from identified source, and "Support IKE DoS
protection" from unidentified source to "Stateless".
E. Set Support IKE DoS protection from identified source to "Stateless", and Support
IKE DoS protection from unidentified source to "None".
Answer: D

CheckPoint   certification 156-315   156-315 examen   156-315   156-315   156-315

NO.6 You want to upgrade a SecurePlatform NG with Application Intelligence (AI) R55
Gateway to SecurePlatform NGX R60 via SmartUpdate.
Which package is needed in the repository before upgrading?
A. SVN Foundation and VPN-1 Express/Pro
B. VNP-1 and FireWall-1
C. SecurePlatform NGX R60
D. SVN Founation
E. VPN-1 Pro/Express NGX R60
Answer: C

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NO.7 In a distributed VPN-1 Pro NGX environment, where is the Internal Certificate
Authority (ICA) installed?
A. On the Security Gateway
B. Certificate Manager Server
C. On the Policy Server
D. On the Smart View Monitor
E. On the primary SmartCenter Server
Answer: E

CheckPoint   156-315 examen   certification 156-315   certification 156-315

NO.8 KillTest is the Security Administrator for KillTest .com. KillTest .com FTP
servers have old hardware and software. Certain FTP commands cause the FTP
servers to malfunction. Upgrading the FTP Servers is not an option this time.
Which of the following options will allow KillTest to control which FTP
commands pass through the Security Gateway protecting the FTP servers?
A. Global Properties->Security Server ->Security Server->Allowed FTP Commands
B. SmartDefense->Application Intelligence->FTP Security Server
C. Rule Base->Action Field->Properties
D. Web Intelligence->Application Layer->FTP Settings
E. FTP Service Object->Advanced->Blocked FTP Commands
Answer: B

CheckPoint   156-315 examen   156-315 examen   certification 156-315

NO.9 You have a production implementation of Management High Availability, at
Version VPN-1 NG with application Intelligence R55.
You must upgrade two SmartCenter Servers to VPN-1.
What is the correct procedure?
A. 1. Synchronize the two SmartCenter Servers
2. Upgrade the secondary SmartCenter Server.
3. Upgrade the primary SmartCenter Server.
4. Configure both SmartCenter Server host objects version to VPN-1 NGX
5. Synchronize the Servers again.
B. 1. Synchronize the two SmartCenter Servers
2. Perform an advanced upgrade the primary SmartCenter Server.
3. Upgrade the secondary SmartCenter Server.
4. Configure both SmartCenter Server host objects to version VPN-1 NGX.
5. Synchronize the Servers again
C. 1. Perform an advanced upgrade on the primary SmartCenter Server.
2. Configure the primary SmartCenter Server host object to version VPN.1 NGX.
3. Synchronize the primary with the secondary SmartCenter Server.
4. Upgrade the secondary SmartCenter Server.
5. Configure the secondary SmartCenter Server host object to version VPN-1 NGX.
6. Synchronize the Servers again.
D. 1. Synchronize the two SmartCenter Servers.
2. Perform an advanced upgrade on the primary SmartCenter Server.
3. Configure the primary SmartCenter Server host object to version VPN-1 NGX.
4. Synchronize the two servers again.
5. Upgrade the secondary SmartCenter Server.
6. Configure the secondary SmartCenter Server host object to version VPN-1 NGX.
7. Synchronize the Servers again.
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-315   certification 156-315   156-315

NO.10 You work a network administrator for KillTest .com. You configure a Check Point QoS Rule Base with
two rules: an H.323 rule with a weight of 10, and the Default
Rule with a weight of 10. The H.323 rule includes a per-connection guarantee of 384
Kbps, and a per-connection limit of 512 Kbps. The per-connection guarantee is for
four connections, and no additional connections are allowed in the Action
properties. If traffic passing through the QoS Module matches both rules, which of
the following is true?
A. Neither rule will be allocated more than 10% of available bandwidth.
B. The H.323 rule will consume no more than 2048 Kbps of available bandwidth.
C. 50% of available bandwidth will be allocated to the H.323 rule.
D. 50% of available bandwidth will be allocated to the Default Rule
E. Each H.323 connection will receive at least 512 Kbps of bandwidth.
Answer: B

CheckPoint   156-315 examen   156-315

NO.11 You are preparing to configure your VoIP Domain Gatekeeper object. Which two other object should you
have created first?
A. An object to represent the IP phone network, AND an object to represent the host on
which the proxy is installed.
B. An object to represent the PSTN phone network, AND an object to represent the IP
phone network
C. An object to represent the IP phone network, AND an object to represent the host on
which the gatekeeper is installed.
D. An object to represent the Q.931 service origination host, AND an object to represent
the H.245 termination host
E. An object to represent the call manager, AND an object to represent the host on which
the transmission router is installed.
Answer: C

certification CheckPoint   156-315   156-315

NO.12 Exhibit:
KillTest is using a mesh VPN Community to create a site-to-site VPN. The VPN
properties in this mesh Community is displayed in the exhibit.
Which of the following statements are true?
A. If Jack changes the settings, "Perform key exchange encryption with" from "3DES" to
"DES", she will enhance the VPN Community's security and reduce encryption overhead.
B. Mrs Bill must change the data-integrity settings for this VPN Community. MD5 is incompatible with
AES.
C. If KillTest changes the setting "Perform IPSec data encryption with" from
"AES-128" to "3DES", Jack will increase the encryption overhead.
D. Her VPN Community will perform IKE Phase 1 key-exchange encryption, using the
longest key VPN-1 NGX supports.
Answer: C

certification CheckPoint   156-315   certification 156-315   156-315 examen   156-315 examen

NO.13 You want VPN traffic to match packets from internal interfaces. You also want the
traffic to exit the Security Gateway, bound for all site-to-site VPN Communities,
including Remote Access Communities.
How should you configure the VPN match rule
A. internal_clear>All-GwToGw
B. Communities>Communities
C. Internal_clear>External_Clear
D. Internal_clear>Communities
E. Internal_clear>All_communities
Answer: E

CheckPoint   156-315   certification 156-315   certification 156-315

NO.14 Which Check Point QoS feature is used to dynamically allocate relative portions of
available bandwidth?
A. Guarantees
B. Differentiated Services
C. Limits
D. Weighted Fair Queuing
E. Low Latency Queing
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-315   certification 156-315   certification 156-315   156-315 examen

NO.15 Exhibit:
The exhibit displays the cphaprob state command output from a New Mode High
Availability cluster member.
Which machine has the highest priority?
A. 192.168.1.2, since its number is 2.
B. 192.168.1.1, because its number is 1.
C. This output does not indicate which machine has the highest priority.
D. 192.168.1.2, because its stats is active
Answer: B

certification CheckPoint   156-315 examen   156-315   156-315

NO.16 Exhibit:
KillTest tries to configure Directional VPN Rule Match in the Rule Base. But the
Match column does not have the option to see the Directional Match. KillTest sees
the screen displayed in the exhibit.
What is the problem?
A. Jack must enable directional_match(true) in the object_5_0.c file on SmartCenter server.
B. Jack must enable Advanced Routing on each Security Gateway
C. Jack must enable VPN Directional Match on the VPN Advanced screen, in Global properties.
D. Jack must enable a dynamic-routing protocol, such as OSPF, on the Gateways.
E. Jack must enable VPN Directional Match on the gateway object's VPN tab.
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which operating system is NOT supported by VPN-1 SecureClient?
A. IPSO 3.9
B. Windows XP SP2
C. Windows 2000 Professional
D. RedHat Linux 8.0
E. MacOS X
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-315 examen   156-315   156-315 examen   certification 156-315

NO.18 You set up a mesh VPN community, so your internal networks can access your
partner's network, and vice versa. Your Security Policy encrypts only FTP and
HTTP traffic through a VPN tunnel. All other traffic among your internal and
partner networks is sent in clear text. How do you configure the VPN community?
A. Disable "accept all encrypted traffic", and put FTP and HTTP in the Excluded services
in the Community object. Add a rule in the Security Policy for services FTP and http,
with the Community object in the VPN field.
B. Disable "accept all encrypted traffic" in the Community, and add FTP and HTTP
services to the Security Policy, with that Community object in the VPN field.
C. Enable "accept all encrypted traffic", but put FTP and HTTP in the Excluded services
in the Community. Add a rule in the Security Policy, with services FTP and http, and the
Community object in the VPN field.
D. Put FTP and HTTP in the Excluded services in the Community object. Then add a rule
in the Security Policy to allow Any as the service with the Community object in the VPN
field.
Answer: B

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NO.19 Exhibit:
You are preparing computers for a new ClusterXL deployment. For your cluster,
you plan to use three machines with the configurations displayed in the exhibit.
Are these machines correctly configured for a ClusterXL deployment?
A. Yes, these machines are configured correctly for a ClusterXL deployment.
B. No, QuadCards are not supported with ClusterXL.
C. No, all machines in a cluster must be running on the same OS.
D. No, al cluster must have an even number of machines.
E. No, ClusterXL is not supported on Red Hat Linux.
Answer: C

CheckPoint examen   156-315   156-315 examen   156-315 examen

NO.20 You receive an alert indicating a suspicious FTP connection is trying to connect to
one of your internal hosts. How do you block the connection in real time and verify
the connection is successfully blocked?
A. Highlight the suspicious connection in SmartView Tracker>Active mode. Block the
connection using Tools>Block Intruder menu. Use the active mode to confirm that the
suspicious connection does not reappear.
B. Highlight the suspicious connection in SmartView Tracker>Log mode. Block the
connection using Tools>Block Intruder menu. Use the Log mode to confirm that the
suspicious connection does not reappear.
C. Highlight the suspicious connection in SmartView Tracker>Active mode. Block the
connection using Tools>Block Intruder menu. Use the active mode to confirm that the
suspicious connection is dropped.
D. Highlight the suspicious connection in SmartView Tracker>Log mode. Block the
connection using Tools>Block Intruder menu. Use the Log mode to confirm that the
suspicious connection is dropped.
Answer: C

CheckPoint   certification 156-315   156-315   156-315

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Code d'Examen: 156-215.70
Nom d'Examen: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Security Administrator R70)
Questions et réponses: 546 Q&As

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NO.1 You just installed a new Web server in the DMZ that must be reachable from the Internet You create a
manual Static NAT rule as follows:
Source: Any
Destination: web_public_IP
Service: Any
Translated Source: original
Translated Destination: web_private_IP
Service: original
web_publicIP" is the node Object that represents the public IP address of the new Web
server."web_privateIP" is the node object that represents the new Web site's private P address You
enable all settings from Global Properties > NAT.
When you try to browse the Web server from the Internet, you see the error 'page cannot be displayed"
Which of the following is NOT a possible reason?
A.There is no route defined on the Security Gateway for the public IP address to the private IP address of
the Web server.
B.There is no Security Policy defined that allows HTTP traffic to the protected Web server.
C.There is an ARP entry on the Gateway but the settings Merge Manual proxy ARP and Automatic ARP
configuration are enabled in Global Properties.The Security Gateway ignores manual ARP entries.
D.There is no ARP table entry for the public IP address of the protected Web server
Answer: A

CheckPoint   certification 156-215.70   156-215.70   certification 156-215.70

NO.2 Which statement defines Public Key Infrastructure? Security is provided
A.by authentication.
B.by Certificate Authorities, digital certificates, and two-way symmetric-key encryption.
C.by Certificate Authorities, digital certificates, and public key encryption.
D.via both private and public keys, without the use of digital Certificates.
Answer: C

CheckPoint   certification 156-215.70   certification 156-215.70

NO.3 External commands can be included in SmartView Tracker via the menu Tools > Custom
Commands.The Security Management Server is running under SecurePlatform, and the GUI is on a
system running Microsoft Windows.How do you run the command, traceroute on an IP address?
A.Use the program GUIdbedit to add the command traceroute to the properties of the Security
Management Server.
B.Go to the menu Tools > Custom Commands and configure the Windows command tracert.exe to the list
C.There is no possibility to expand the three pre-defined options ping, whois, and Nslookup
D.Go to the menu.Tools > Custom Commands and configure the Linux command traceroute to the list
Answer: B

CheckPoint   certification 156-215.70   certification 156-215.70   156-215.70   156-215.70

NO.4 A Security Policy installed by another Security Administrator has blocked all SmartDashboard
connections to the stand-alone installation of R70.After running the fw unloadlocal command, you are
able to reconnect with SmartDashboard and view all changes.Which of the following change is the most
likely cause of the block?
A.A Stealth Rule has been configured for the R70 Gateway.
B.The Allow control connections setting in Policy > Global Properties has been unchecked.
C.The Security Policy installed to the Gateway had no rules in it
D.The Gateway Object representing your Gateway was configured as an Externally Managed VPN
Gateway.
Answer: B

CheckPoint   certification 156-215.70   certification 156-215.70

NO.5 Assume an intruder has compromised your current IKE Phase 1 and Phase 2 keys.Which of the
following options will end the intruder s access after the next Phase 2 exchange occurs?
A.Perfect Forward Secrecy
B.SHA1 Hash Completion
C.Phase 3 Key Revocation
D.M05 Hash Completion
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-215.70   156-215.70   156-215.70   certification 156-215.70

NO.6 Using the output below, what type of VPN Community is configured for fw-stlouis?
A.Meshed
B.Domain-Based
C.Star
D.Traditional
Answer: A

certification CheckPoint   156-215.70   156-215.70   certification 156-215.70   156-215.70 examen   156-215.70

NO.7 Which rule is responsible for the installation failure?
A.Rule 4
B.Rule 3
C.Rule 5
D.Rule 6
Answer: A

CheckPoint examen   156-215.70   156-215.70 examen   certification 156-215.70   certification 156-215.70

NO.8 What CANNOT be configured for existing connections during a policy install?
A.Keep all connections
B.Keep data connections
C.Reset all connections
D.Re-match connections
Answer: C

certification CheckPoint   156-215.70   156-215.70   certification 156-215.70   156-215.70 examen

NO.9 Which of the following are authentication methods that Security Gateway R70 uses to validate
connection attempts? Select the response below includes that includes the MOST complete list of valid
authentication methods:
A.Proxied, User, Dynamic, Session
B.Connection, User, Client
C.User, Client.Session
D.Connection, Proxied, Session
Answer: C

CheckPoint examen   156-215.70   156-215.70

NO.10 In previous version, the full TCP three-way handshake was sent to the firewall kernel for inspection.How
is this improved in current Flows/SecureXL?
A.Only the initial SYN packet is inspected The rest are handled by IPSO
B.Packets are offloaded to a third-party hardware card for near-line inspection
C.Packets are virtualized to a RAM drive-based FW VM
D.Resources are proactively assigned using predictive algorithmic techniques
Answer: A

certification CheckPoint   156-215.70   certification 156-215.70   156-215.70   156-215.70   156-215.70

NO.11 Which OPSEC server can be used to prevent users from access.ng certain Web sites?
A.LEA
B.AMON
C.UFP
D.CVP
Answer: C

CheckPoint   156-215.70   156-215.70   certification 156-215.70   156-215.70

NO.12 If you experience unwanted traffic from a specific IP address, how can you stop it most quickly?
A.Check anti-spoofing settings
B.Configure a rule to block the address
C.Create a SAM rule
D.Activate an IPS protection
Answer: C

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NO.13 What is a Consolidation Policy?
A.The collective name of the Security Policy, Address Translation, and IPS Policies.
B.The specific Policy written in SmartDashboard to configure which log data is stored in the
SmartReporter database.
C.The collective name of the logs generated by SmartReporter.
D.A global Policy used to share a common enforcement policy for multiple Security Gateways.
Answer: B

CheckPoint examen   156-215.70 examen   156-215.70 examen

NO.14 You have blocked an IP address via the Block Intruder feature of SmartView Tracker How can you view
the blocked addresses'?
A.Run f wm blockedview.
B.In SmartView Monitor, select the Blocked Intruder option from the query tree view
C.In SmartView Monitor, select Suspicious Activity Rules from the Tools menu and select the relevant
Security Gateway from the list
D.In SmartView Tracker, click the Active tab.and the actively blocked connections displays
Answer: C

certification CheckPoint   156-215.70   certification 156-215.70   156-215.70   156-215.70

NO.15 A digital signature:
A.Provides a secure key exchange mechanism over the Internet
B.Automatically exchanges shared keys
C.Guarantees the authenticity and integrity of a message
D.Decrypts data to its original form.
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which of the following SSL Network Extender server-side prerequisites is NOT correct?
A.The Gateway must be configured to work with Visitor Mode.
B.There are distinctly separate access rules required for SecureClient users vs.SSL Network Extender
users.
C.To use Integrity Clientless Security (ICS), you must install the IC3 server or configuration tool.
D.The specific Security Gateway must be configured as a member of the Remote Access Community
Answer: B

certification CheckPoint   156-215.70   156-215.70   certification 156-215.70

NO.17 Your company's Security Policy forces users to authenticate to the Gateway explicitly, before they can
use any services.The Gateway does not allow the Telnet service to itself from any location.How would you
configure authentication on the Gateway? With a:
A.Client Authentication for fully automatic sign on
B.Client Authentication rule using the manual sign-on method, using HTTP on port 900
C.Client Authentication rule, using partially automatic sign on
D.Session Authentication rule
Answer: B

CheckPoint examen   156-215.70   156-215.70   156-215.70 examen   156-215.70 examen

NO.18 In a distributed management environment, the administrator has removed the default check from
Accept Control Connections under the Policy > Global Properties > FireWall tab.In order for the Security
Management Server to install a policy to the Firewall, an explicit rule must be created to allow the server
to communicate to the Security Gateway on port_____.
A.256
B.80
C.900
D.259
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-215.70   certification 156-215.70

NO.19 John is the Security Administrator in his company He installs a new R70 Security Management Server
and a new R70 Gateway He now wants to establish SIC between them.After entering the activation key,
the message "Trust established" is displayed in SmartDashboard, but SIC still does not seem to work
because the policy won't install and interface fetching still does not work.What might be a reason for this?
A.This must be a human error.
B.The Gateway's time is several days or weeks in the future and the SIC certificate is not yet valid.
C.SIC does not function over the network.
D.It always works when the trust is established.
Answer: B

CheckPoint   certification 156-215.70   156-215.70 examen   156-215.70 examen   certification 156-215.70

NO.20 Which of following uses the same key to decrypt as it does encrypt?
A.Asymmetric encryption
B.Symmetric encryption
C.Certificate-based encryption
D.Dynamic encryption
Answer: B

certification CheckPoint   certification 156-215.70   156-215.70

NO.21 You are evaluating the configuration of a mesh VPN Community used to create a site-to-site VPN.This
graphic displays the VPN properties in this mesh Community
Which of the following would be a valid conclusion?
A.The VPN Community will perform IKE Phase 1 key-exchange encryption using the longest key Security
Gateway R70 supports.
B.Changing the setting Perform IPsec data encryption with from AES-128 to 3DES will increase the
encryption overhead.
C.Changing the setting Perform key exchange encryption with 3DES to DES will enhance the VPN
Community's security, and reduce encryption overhead.
D.Change the data-integrity settings for this VPN CommunitybecauseMD5 is incompatible with AES.
Answer: B

CheckPoint   156-215.70   156-215.70 examen   156-215.70

NO.22 You are trying to save a custom log query in R70 SmartView Tracker, but getting the following error
"Could not save 'query-name' (Error Database is Read Only).
Which of the following is a likely explanation for this?
A.You have read-only rights to the Security Management Server catabase.
B.You do not have the explicit right to save a custom query in your administrator permission profile under
SmartConsole customization
C.You do not have OS write permissions on the local SmartView Tracker PC in order to save the custom
query locally
D.Another administrator is currently connected to the Security Management Server with read/write
permissions which impacts your ability to save custom log queries to the Security Management Server.
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-215.70 examen   156-215.70   156-215.70   certification 156-215.70

NO.23 Your R70 enterprise Security Management Server is running abnormally on Windows 2003 Server You
decide to try reinstalling the Security Management Server, but you want to try keeping the critical Security
Management Server configuration settings intact (i.e., all Security Policies, databases, SIC, licensing etc )
What is the BEST method to reinstall the Server and keep its critical configuration?
A.1.Create a database revision control backup using the SmartDashboard
2.Create a compressed archive of the *FWDlR*\ conf and FWDiR8\lib directories and copy them to
another networked machine.
3.Uninstall all R70 packages via Add/Remove Programs and reboot.
4.Install again as a primary Security Management Server using the R70 CD.
5.Reboot and restore the two archived directories over the top of the new installation, choosing to
overwrite existing files.
B.1.Download the latest upgrade_export utility and run it from a c; \temp directory to export the
configuration into a .tgz file
2.Skip any upgarde__verification warnings since you are not upgrading
3.Transfer the .tgz file to another networked machine
4.Download and run the cpclean utility and reboot
5.Use the R70 CD-ROM to select the uuarade import ootion to import the confiauration
C.1.Download the latest upqrade_expoct utility and run it from a \temp directory to export the
configuration into a .tgz file
2.Perform any requested upgcade_veri¡êic tion sugested steps
3.Uninstall all R70 packages via Add/Remove Programs and reboot
4.Use SmartUpdate to reinstall the Security Management Server and reboot
5.Transfer the tgz file back to the local \temp
6.Run upgrade__import to import the configuration
D.1.Insert the F70 CD-ROM, and select the option to export the configuration using the latest upgrade
utilities
2.Perform any requested upgrade_verification suggested steps and re-export the configuration if needed
3.Save the export " tgz file to a local c: \temp directory
4.Uninstall all R70 packages via Add/Remove Programs and reboot
5.Install again using the R70 CD-ROM as a primary Security Management Server and reboot
6.Run upgrade_import to import the configuration
Answer: C

CheckPoint   156-215.70   156-215.70   156-215.70   156-215.70

NO.24 Which of the following are available SmartConsole clients which can be installed from the R70
Windows CD? Read all answers and select the most complete and valid list.
A.SmartView Tracker, CPINFO, SmartUpdate
B.SmartView Tracker, SmartDashboard, SmartLSM, SmartView Monitor
C.SmartView Tracker, SmartDashboard, CPINFO, SmartUpdate.SmartView Status
D.Security Policy Editor, Log Viewer, Real Time Monitor GUI
Answer: B

certification CheckPoint   156-215.70   certification 156-215.70   certification 156-215.70

NO.25 What are you required to do before running upgrade__ export?
A.Run cpconfig and set yourself up as a GUI client.
B.Run a cpstop on the Security Management Server
C.Run a cpstop on the Security Gateway.
D.Close all GUI clients
Answer: B,C,D

CheckPoint   certification 156-215.70   156-215.70

NO.26 You are installing your R70Security Gateway.Which is NOT a valid option for the hardware platform?
A.Crossbeam
B.Solaris
C.Windows
D.IPSO
Answer: B

CheckPoint examen   156-215.70 examen   156-215.70 examen

NO.27 Which command displays the installed Security Gateway version?
A.fw stat
B.cpstat -gw
C.fw ver
D.tw printver
Answer: C

CheckPoint   156-215.70 examen   156-215.70 examen   156-215.70

NO.28 When launching SmartDashboard, what information is required to log into R70?
A.User Name, Management Server IP, certificate fingerprint file
B.User Name, Password, Management Server IP
C.Password, Management Server IP
D.Password, Management Server IP, LDAP Server IP
Answer: B

CheckPoint   156-215.70   156-215.70 examen   156-215.70 examen

NO.29 You are installing a Security Management Server Your security plan calls for three administrators for this
particular server.How many can you create during installation'?
A.Depends on the license installed on the Security Management Server
B.Only one with full access and one with read-only access
C.One
D.As many as you want
Answer: C

certification CheckPoint   certification 156-215.70   156-215.70 examen   156-215.70   156-215.70

NO.30 Which opponent functions as the Internet Certificate Authority for R70?
A.Security Gateway
B.Management Server
C.Policy Server
D.SmartLSM
Answer: B

certification CheckPoint   156-215.70 examen   156-215.70   156-215.70 examen

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