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Code d'Examen: C2010-650
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Fundamentals of Applying Tivoli Endpoint Manager Solutions V1)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

Code d'Examen: A4120-784
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Assessment: IBM PureFlex Technical Expert V1)
Questions et réponses: 70 Q&As

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NO.1 The IT operations team wants to install IBM Tivoli Endpoint Manager (TEM) in a network
where proxy Internet access is required. The proxy requires a non-Windows credential to be entered
each time the Internet is accessed. Where is this registry key set:
[HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\BigFix\Enterprise ServertGatherService]?
A. On the TEM server
B. On the Top Level Relay
C. On the Internet DMZ relay
D. On a client with direct Internet access
Answer: A

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9. The Message Level Encryption feature of IBM Tivoli Endpoint Manager V8.2 (TEM) increases
security but adds an additional load to the environment. What system hardware changes should be
made to the TEM environment to accommodate the additional load?
A. Add more RAM to the relays and clients
B. Add more disk space to the TEM server and clients
C. Add more RAM to the TEM server or decrypting relay
D. Add more processing power to the TEM server or decrypting relay
Answer: D

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10. Which dashboard can be viewed to check the average number of BES Clients per relay?
A. Systems Lifecycle
B. Deployment Overview
C. System Configuration
D. Deployment Health Checks
Answer: B

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11. Which statement accurately describes one of the requirements for running the Client
Deployment Tool for Windows?
A. The target should have port 52311 open.
B. The target must be in an Active Directory domain.
C. The target must have file and print sharing services enabled.
D. The deployment system should be any UNIX or Windows relay.
Answer: C

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12. Internet access must be configured through a proxy server in order for the IBM Tivoli
Endpoint Manager (TEM) server to download Windows patches from the Internet. How is this
accomplished?
A. The TEM server does not need Internet access. Content can only be added manually.
B. Configure the BES Gather Service to use a service account that has open access to the Internet.
C. Configure specific proxy server rules only permitting the TEM clients to go to specific domains
such as Microsoft.com or Adobe.com.
D. In the Window's registry set the BES Gather Service to bypass proxy server for local address.
Restart the BES Gather Service when finished so changes will take effect.
Answer: B

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13. How is an IBM Tivoli Endpoint Manager (TEM) client system most efficiently promoted to a
relay?
A. Manually run the reiayinstaill.exe package on the desired system
B. All TEM clients are already relays so no additional configuration is necessary
C. Use the relay install task from the TEM Console to install the relay on the desired system
D. Create a fixlet using the TEM Software Distribution tool to distribute and execute the relay install
on the desired system
Answer: C

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14. Which account should a remote console operator use to access the IBM Tivoli Endpoint
Manager (TEM) Console?
A. LDAP/AD Domain credentials
B. TEM Masthead and password
C. SQL Server Admin credentials
D. TEM Private Key and password
Answer: A

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15. If usePre70ClientCompatibleMIME is set to false for the IBM Tivoli Endpoint Manager server,
what is the recommended number of components in a baseline?
A. <15
B. <250
C. <1000
D. <2000
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which statement describes how to manually set download throttling for clients within IBM
Tivoli Endpoint Manager (TEM)?
A. Access the relay diagnostic page on the TEM server at http://127.0.0.1:52311 /rd and modify the
Client Download Speed setting.
B. Access the TEM console, take action on the task BES Client Setting: Download Throttling, in the
Action Parameter window set the Bytes/sec value, and click OK.
C. Access the TEM console, select File > Preferences, under the bandwidth throttling section, update
the Bytes/sec value for the default download throttling for clients.
D. Access the TEM Administration Tool, select System Options, select bandwidth throttling, and
update the Bytes/sec value for the default download throttling for clients.
Answer: B

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NO.3 A customer has a functioning IBM Tivoli Endpoint Manager (TEM) server and has successfully
deployed TEM for Core Protection Module (CPM) in their network. They want to use Trend's Web
Reputation technology so that they can have real time and control to prevent Web-based malware
from infecting their end users' computers. What do they need to do to get this process started?
A. CPM does not have Web Reputation capability.
B. Take action on the task Set URL Filtering on the end users' computers.
C. Ensure CPM clients are at V10.6 or greater. Take action on the Core Protection Module
-
Endpoint Upgrade task.
D.Take action on the task Enable Web Reputation on the Proxy Server to enable communication
between CPM and the proxy.
Answer: C

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NO.4 A company has a Trend Anti-Virus environment and they have purchased IBM Tivoli Endpoint
Manager (TEM) for Core Protection. What needs to occur first to begin the process of gathering the
site content?
A. Activate all 23 analysis found under the Core Protection Module in the TEM Console.
B. Go to the license overview dashboard under BigFix Management domain and enable Trend Micro
Core Protection Module, Trend Reporting.
C. Core protection requires its own server. Review hardware requirements, build the server, and
setup ODBC connections back to the TEM server.
D. Once the Core Protection Module has been purchased, an e-mail is sent from Trend containing
the necessary download links and information. Follow the e-mail instruction to download and install
Trend on the TEM server.
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is the purpose of the Gathering Interval drop-down menu setting in the Advanced
Masthead parameters within the IBM Tivoli Endpoint Manager (TEM) Administration Tool?
A. This option determines how often new content is replicated to relays.
B. This option determines how often the server gathers new content for the sites.
C. This option defines how often server replication occurs between two TEM servers.
D. This option determines how long the clients wait without hearing from the server before they
check whether new content is available.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Power Management has recently been added to the IBM Tivoli Endpoint Manager (TEM)
license. What is the first step to view the site contents in the console?
A. Launch the TEM Administration Tool and enable the site under the Masthead Management tab
B. Choose the Power Management site from the external site listing and specifically subscribe the
TEM server
C. Choose the Power Management site from the external site listing and subscribe any Windows
computer
D. Enable the Power Management site under the License Overview dashboard within the BigFix
Management domain
Answer: D

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NO.7 This action script is run:
regset "[HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\Test]" "testString" = "testValue"
In the fixlet debugger, the key gets correctly created under the HKEY_CURRENTJJSER branch.
However, when running the same action by targeting the IBM Tivoli Endpoint Manager (TEM) client
in the TEM Console, the agent states that the action ran to completion but the same key is not there.
What is the reason for this discrepancy?
A. The TEM client reported action completion in error.
B. Some action script commands, like regset, work only in the fixlet debugger.
C. The fixlet debugger is more forgiving when it comes to proper action script form.
D. The fixlet debugger runs under the users' context; the TEM client runs as LocalSystem.
Answer: D

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NO.8 How is IBM Tivoli Endpoint Manager (TEM) for Security and Compliance Analytics (SCA)
installed?
A. From the TEM component installer
B. Take action on the task Deploy and Run Security Checklist
C. Take action on the task Download TEMA Installer, then run the setup file manually
D. Enable the site in the License Overview Dashboard in the TEM Management Domain
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: C2040-926
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Managing and Maintaining IBM Lotus Notes and Domino 8.5 Environments)
Questions et réponses: 146 Q&As

Code d'Examen: M2020-620
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Risk Analytics Sales Mastery Test v1)
Questions et réponses: 24 Q&As

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NO.1 Which one of the following is a business process that the IBM Risk Analytics portfolio is
focused on improving?
A. Deploying predictive maintenance capabilities
B. Reducing customer churn
C. Reducing the cost of compliance
D. Improving propensity analysis
Answer: C

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Reference:http://www-03.ibm.com/software/products/us/en/category/SWQ40(4th bullet)

NO.2 Which one of the following risk types can the Algorithmics Risk Analytics solution set help
measure, manage and mitigate?
A. Liquidity Risk
B. Information Security Risk
C. Operational Risk
D. Systems Risk
Answer: A

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Reference:http://www-01.ibm.com/software/analytics/algorithmics/(first para)

NO.3 What are two of the key weighted assessment criteria used to assess the industry solution in
the Chartis 2011 RiskTech100@ study of the top technology companies active in the risk
management market?
A. Market presence and organizational strength
B. Data handling and processing speed
C. Organizational strength and data handling
D. Processing speed and market presence
Answer: A

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Reference:http://chartis-research.com/files/RiskTech100-2011-FullReport_RR1120.pdf(page 6, see
success factors)

NO.4 Which Risk Analytics solution focuses on helping companies deliver Governance, Risk and
Compliance (GRC)?
A. Algo Liquidity
B. OpenPages
C. Algo Financial Modeler
D. Algo One
Answer: B

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Reference:http://www-01.ibm.com/software/analytics/rte/an/risk-compliance/index.html(read the
entire page)

NO.5 How does IBM describe the benefits of horizontal integration?
A. Better integration of data elements cross the business
B. Elimination of silos and enablement of a comprehensive view of risks
C. Better granularity of risk measures in the middle office
D. Improvements of measure of credit risk from front to back of the enterprise
Answer: A

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Reference:http://www.ibm.com/investor/events/investor0512 /presentation/ 04_Enterprise_Producti
vity.pdf(slide 6&7)

NO.6 To help companies understand their progress on a Smarter Analytics maturity model, IBM
helps companies access their Analytics Quotient (AQ).
What is one aspect of a client's business that is scored to measure a company's AQ maturity?
A. The level of Risk they Measure in their business
B. The volume of data they process
C. The number of nodes used to process data
D. The ability to anticipate future events and results
Answer: A

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NO.7 According to independent studies, what measure has IBM used to validate to the market the
value of adopting Smarter Analytics solutions?
A. That companies increase their volumes of data.
B. That companies create bigger networks.
C. That companies out perform their competitors.
D. That companies are able to tie their performance to the average in their industry.
Answer: C

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NO.8 In IBM Risk Analytics, IBM studies show that setting aside additional capital made no impact
on businesses in a crisis.
What is it that has been proved to improve business survival in the same crisis scenario?
A. Additional data to work with
B. External consulting support
C. Increased market confident through evidentially better business management
D. A more dynamic acquisition strategy
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: C4040-108
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Enterprise Technical Support for AIX and Linux -v2)
Questions et réponses: 130 Q&As

Code d'Examen: A2180-400
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Assessment: IBM WebSphere Operational Decision Management V8.0, Application Development)
Questions et réponses: 52 Q&As

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NO.1 An application developer is in charge of synchronizing changes in a rule project between
Decision
Center and the Source Code Control (SCC) tool used for development. Which rule project artifacts
should
the application developer exclude from SCC?
A. resources and templates folders
B. resources folder and .syncEntries file
C. output folder and .syncEntries file
D. output, templates and queries folders
Answer: C

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NO.2 An application developer must implement verbalization changes in a rule project. This rule
project: is primarily maintained by rule authors in Decision Center which is the source of record
("source of
truth").
is not present in the application developer's Rule Designer workspace.
does not have any dependency to or from any other rule project.
contains historical versions of rules that should be retained.
What should the application developer do?
A. Publish the rule project to a Rule Solutions for Office RuleDoc, implement rule changes and
update
Decision Center
B. Create a new "Rule Project from Decision Center" in Rule Designer, implement verbalization
changes
and publish to Decision Center
C. Create a new "Rule Project" in Rule Designer, synchronize it with the rule project from Decision
Center,
implement verbalization changes and publish to Decision Center
D. Choose "Export Current Project State" in Decision Center, import the ".zip" file in Rule Designer,
implement verbalization changes, delete the Decision Center rule project and import it back with a
".zip"
file exported from Rule Designer
Answer: B

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NO.3 Decision Center contains the following:
Two rule projects: CorporateRiskAssessment and NewYorkRiskAssessment.
One RuleApp RiskAssessmentRuleApp with a single ruleset CorporateRiskAssessmentRuleset.
An application developer needs to deploy the NewYorkRiskAssessment rule project to Rule
Execution
Server as a separate ruleset. Updates to NewYorkRiskAssessment need to be deployed in a single
action with updates to CorporateRiskAssessment. How should the application developer setup the
RuleApp structure in Decision Center to accomplish these requirements?
A. Under Configure > Manage RuleApps, click Deploy to add the NewYorkRiskAssessmentRuleset
ruleset.
B. Under Configure > Manage RuleApps, click New to create a new NewYorkRiskAssessmentRuleset
ruleset.
C. Under Configure > Manage RuleApps, select RiskAssessmentRuleApp and click Edit to add the
NewYorkRiskAssessmentRuleset ruleset.
D. Select the NewYorkRiskAssessment rule project on the Home tab, and under Project > Manage
Subbranches and Baselines > Baselines, click New to add the NewYorkRiskAssessmentRuleset
ruleset.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: A2090-421
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Assessment: InfoSphere DataStage v8.5)
Questions et réponses: 194 Q&As

Code d'Examen: C2140-137
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Advanced Rational Application Developer v7)
Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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NO.1 A developer is building an application where the home page will have links displayed
for administrators,
which will not be available for regular users of the application. Otherwise, the home page is
identical for
administrators and regular users. A J2EE role-based security pattern is being implemented
with one role
for users and one role for staff. What is the BEST way to display different versions of the
home page?
A. You map the two roles to different JSPs for the home page, where one includes the extra
links (for
administrators) and the other does not (for users).
B. It is not possible to display different versions of the same page for users who have
different roles.
C. You apply declarative security to the body of the JSP where the links that are only
available to the
administrators are declared to be accessible only to that role.
D. You implement the links using a J2EE custom library, which contains a call to
isUserInRole() on the
HttpServletRequest to see if the link should be displayed or not.
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is best practice when designing a data-intensive EJB application?
A. set the values of Entity EJBs by passing them a Data Transfer object containing the
necessary data
B. provide major Entity EJBs with a remote interface and relate other Entity EJBs to them via
Container
Managed Relations (CMR)
C. provide all Entity EJBs with a local interface only and perform all remote access through
Session EJBs
D. encapsulate frequently accessed read-only data in an Entity EJB for efficient caching
Answer: C

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NO.3 In JSP, custom tag libraries can be used to _____.
A. enable better searching in a Web application
B. package tag extensions for JSP
C. package JSPs for exporting to other projects
D. package tag extensions for JSF
Answer: B

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NO.4 During the development process, a programmer selects an EJB project containing
entity beans and
selects Prepare For Deployment. Which action does this operation perform?
A. updates the deployment descriptor with a reference to the EJB JAR
B. generates the helper classes to map entity beans to the database
C. generates the EJB JAR file and includes it in the associated enterprise application project
D. guides the user through a wizard interface to determine the mapping between the fields in
the entity
bean and their associated database fields
Answer: B

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NO.5 The embedded Apache Derby database makes development easier. However, it has
one severe
limitation that prevents its use in production environments. What is this limitation?
A. Connection pooling is disallowed and results in degraded performance.
B. It provides a reduced data type set without the ability to define BLOB (Binary Large
Object) or CLOB
(Character Large Object) columns types.
C. It provides only English language support.
D. It allows only one application to access the database to create a connection.
E. The use of the JDBC drivers is proprietary and requires a for purchase license.
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: C2010-655
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Tivoli Composite Application Manager for Transactions V7.3 Implementation)
Questions et réponses: 70 Q&As

Code d'Examen: C2140-047
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Rational System Architect: BPMN Emphasis)
Questions et réponses: 63 Q&As

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NO.1 What are three typical domains in an enterprise architecture? (Select three.)
A. source code
B. project plans
C. business processes
D. technology infrastructure
E. applications and information
Answer: CDE

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NO.2 Which three categories of symbols are represented on Business Process Diagrams?
(Select three.)
A. Swimlanes
B. Stereotypes
C. Flow Objects
D. Decision Trees
E. Connecting Objects
Answer: ACE

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NO.3 Which three enterprise architecture frameworks are supported by Rational System
Architect? (Select
three.)
A. NAF
B. TAFIM
C. MODAF
D. DoDAF
E. AGATE
Answer: ACD

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NO.4 Which three elements are included in a complete enterprise? (Select three.)
A. traceability to the goals and objectives of the organization
B. descriptions of the components that make up the organization
C. technology and process standards for deployment and maintenance
D. historical data that contributed to the current state of the organization
Answer: ABC

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NO.5 Which statement best describes the purpose of Business Process Modeling Notation
(BPMN)?
A. It provides a graphical notation for diagramming business processes.
B. It defines a standard format for determining the processes that take place within an
organization.
C. It describes a methodology for describing relationships between entities and their business
processes.
D. It provides a textual and graphical methodology for modeling the current and future state
of business
and communication processes.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which two System Architect functions can be used to copy selected diagrams and/or
data definitions
from one project encyclopedia into another? (Select two.)
A. Data Import
B. File Export/Import
C. Encyclopedia Merge
D. Encyclopedia Extract
E. Encyclopedia Transfer
Answer: CD

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NO.7 Which type of diagram enables you to graphically model the goals and objectives of an
organization
along with the strategies and tactics devised to achieve those goals?
A. Business Concept Diagram
B. Business Process Diagram
C. Enterprise Direction Diagram
D. Business Process Hierarchy
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which basic BPMN model describes processes that are internal to a specific
organization?
A. Native
B. Private
C. Internal
D. Intrinsic
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: C4040-221
Nom d'Examen: IBM (AIX 7 Administration )
Questions et réponses: 229 Q&As

Code d'Examen: P2090-095
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM InfoSphere QualityStage Fundamentals Technical Mastery Test v1)
Questions et réponses: 41 Q&As

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NO.1 In Standardization Rule Sets, classification table contains what?
A. Field name, data type, and position in record.
B. Class, token, and standard form.
C. Pattern of tokens, actions to execute, and the logic.
D. Token, standard form, class, and override rules.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Investigation of data using QualityStage is for _____________________
A. transforming the data from one data type to another.
B. discovering the actual values of missing data.
C. verifying the reliability of the data in the fields to be used as matching criteria.
D. identifying all the data sources for data consolidation.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following rules will retain FIELD1 with the longest last name and TITLE
equals to "MR"?
A. FIELD1: SIZEOF(TRIM(c."LASTNAME"))<= SIZEOF(TRIM(b."LASTNAME")) AND
c.TITLE="MR"
B. FIELD1: SIZEOF(TRIM(c."LASTNAME"))>= SIZEOF(TRIM(c."LASTNAME")) AND
c.TITLE="MR"
C. FIELD1: SIZEOF(TRIM(c."LASTNAME"))>= SIZEOF(TRIM(b."LASTNAME")) AND
b.TITLE="MR"
D. FIELD1: SIZEOF(TRIM(c."LASTNAME"))>= SIZEOF(TRIM(b."LASTNAME")) AND
c.TITLE="MR"
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is DataStage/Quality Stage Administrator client used for?
A. Setting up project properties.
B. Scheduling jobs to execute.
C. Compiling all the jobs at once.
D. Exporting log messages for a job.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following is TRUE regarding the use of Critical Fields.?
A. Critical Fields are used to identify fields that must agree in order for records to be linked.
B. Critical Fields do not have to match exactly.
C. Only critical fields of a record are used to calculate the composite weights of the record.
D. Critical Fields are fields with missing values.
Answer: A

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L'avènement de la certification CompTIA pratique d'examen SY0-401 JK0-019 questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: SY0-401
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Security+ Certification)
Questions et réponses: 512 Q&As

Code d'Examen: JK0-019
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam)
Questions et réponses: 637 Q&As

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NO.1 Jane has recently implemented a new network design at her organization and wishes to
passively identify security issues with the new network. Which of the following should Jane perform?
A. Vulnerability assessment
B. Black box testing
C. White box testing
D. Penetration testing
Answer: A

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NO.2 Pete needs to open ports on the firewall to allow for secure transmission of files. Which of
the following ports should be opened on the firewall?
A. TCP 23
B. UDP 69
C. TCP 22
D. TCP 21
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following is an application security coding problem?
A. Error and exception handling
B. Patch management
C. Application hardening
D. Application fuzzing
Answer: A

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NO.4 Configuring the mode, encryption methods, and security associations are part of which of the
following?
A. IPSec
B. Full disk encryption
C. 802.1x
D. PKI
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following is being tested when a company's payroll server is powered off for
eight hours?
A. Succession plan
B. Business impact document
C. Continuity of operations plan
D. Risk assessment plan
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following assessments would Pete, the security administrator, use to actively test
that an application's security controls are in place?
A. Code review
B. Penetration test
C. Protocol analyzer
D. Vulnerability scan
Answer: B

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NO.7 Matt, an administrator, notices a flood fragmented packet and retransmits from an email
server. After disabling the TCP offload setting on the NIC, Matt sees normal traffic with packets
flowing in sequence again. Which of the following utilities was he MOST likely using to view this
issue?
A. Spam filter
B. Protocol analyzer
C. Web application firewall
D. Load balancer
Answer: B

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NO.8 Pete, a developer, writes an application. Jane, the security analyst, knows some things about
the overall application but does not have all the details. Jane needs to review the software before it
is released to production. Which of the following reviews should Jane conduct?
A. Gray Box Testing
B. Black Box Testing
C. Business Impact Analysis
D. White Box Testing
Answer: A

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CheckPoint meilleur examen 156-315.13 156-215-71, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 156-315.13
Nom d'Examen: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Security Expert)
Questions et réponses: 639 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 156-215-71
Nom d'Examen: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Security Administrator R71)
Questions et réponses: 465 Q&As

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NO.1 Using IPS, how do you notify the Security Administrator that malware is scanning specific ports?
By enabling:
A. Malware Scan protection
B. Sweep Scan protection
C. Host Port Scan
D. Malicious Code Protector
Answer: B

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NO.2 _______________ manages Standard Reports and allows the administrator to specify
automatic uploads of reports to a central FTP server.
A. SmartDashboard Log Consolidator
B. SmartReporter
C. Security Management Server
D. SmartReporter Database
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which Check Point product is used to create and save changes to a Log Consolidation Policy?
A. SmartReporter Client
B. Security Management Server
C. SmartDashboard Log Consolidator
D. SmartEvent Server
Answer: C

CheckPoint examen   certification 156-315.13   156-315.13   156-315.13 examen

NO.4 You have an internal FTP server, and you allow downloading, but not uploading. Assume
Network Address Translation is set up correctly, and you want to add an inbound rule with:
Source: Any Destination: FTP server Service: FTP resources object.
How do you configure the FTP resource object and the action column in the rule to achieve this goal?
A. Enable only the "Get" method in the FTP Resource Properties, and use this method in the rule,
with action accept.
B. Enable only the "Get" method in the FTP Resource Properties and use it in the rule, with action
drop.
C. Enable both "Put" and "Get" methods in the FTP Resource Properties and use them in the rule,
with action drop.
D. Disable "Get" and "Put" methods in the FTP Resource Properties and use it in the rule, with
action accept.
E. Enable only the "Put" method in the FTP Resource Properties and use it in the rule, with action
accept.
Answer: A

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NO.5 You are preparing computers for a new ClusterXL deployment. For your cluster, you plan to use
four machines with the following configurations:
Cluster Member 1: OS: SecurePlatform, NICs: QuadCard, memory: 1 GB, Security Gateway only,
version: R76
Cluster Member 2: OS: SecurePlatform, NICs: 4 Intel 3Com, memory: 1 GB, Security Gateway only,
version: R76
Cluster Member 3: OS: SecurePlatform, NICs: 4 other manufacturers, memory: 512 MB, Security
Gateway only, version: R76
Security Management Server: MS Windows 2003, NIC. Intel NIC (1), Security Gateway and primary
Security Management Server installed, version: R76
Are these machines correctly configured for a ClusterXL deployment?
A. No, the Security Gateway cannot be installed on the Security Management Pro Server.
B. No, Cluster Member 3 does not have the required memory.
C. Yes, these machines are configured correctly for a ClusterXL deployment.
D. No, the Security Management Server is not running the same operating system as the cluster
members.
Answer: C

CheckPoint   156-315.13 examen   156-315.13 examen

NO.6 You want only RAS signals to pass through H.323 Gatekeeper and other H.323 protocols,
passing directly between end points. Which routing mode in the VoIP Domain Gatekeeper do you
select?
A. Direct
B. Direct and Call Setup
C. Call Setup
D. Call Setup and Call Control
Answer: A

CheckPoint examen   certification 156-315.13   156-315.13 examen   certification 156-315.13

NO.7 Based on the following information, which of the statements below is FALSE?
A DLP Rule Base has the following conditions: Data Type =Password Protected File Source=My
Organization Destination=Outside My Organization Protocol=Any Action=Ask User Exception: Data
Type=Any, Source=Research and Development (R&D) Destination=Pratner1.com Protocol=Any All
other rules are set to Detect. UserCheck is enabled and installed on all client machines.
A. When a user from R&D sends an e-mail with a password protected PDF file as an attachment to
xyz@partner1 .com, he will be prompted by UserCheck.
B. When a user from Finance sends an e-mail with an encrypted ZIP file as an attachment to. He will
be prompted by UserCheck.
C. Another rule is added: Source = R&D, Destination = partner1.com, Protocol = Any, Action = Inform.
When a user from R&D sends an e-mail with an encrypted ZIP file as an attachment to, he will be
prompted by UserCheck.
D. When a user from R&D sends an e-mail with an encrypted ZIP file as an attachment to , he will
NOT be prompted by UserCheck.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following statements accurately describes the migrate command?
A. upgrade_export is used when upgrading the Security Gateway, and allows certain files to be
included or excluded before exporting.
B. upgrade_export stores network-configuration data, objects, global properties, and the database
revisions prior to upgrading the Security Management Server.
C. Used primarily when upgrading the Security Management Server, migrate stores all object
databases and the conf directories for importing to a newer version of the Security Gateway
D. Used when upgrading the Security Gateway, upgrade_export includes modified files, such as in
the directories /lib and /conf.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 156-727.77
Nom d'Examen: CheckPoint (Threat Prevention)
Questions et réponses: 53 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 156-315.75
Nom d'Examen: CheckPoint (Check Point Security Expert R75)
Questions et réponses: 629 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 156-215.76
Nom d'Examen: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Security Administrator - GAiA)
Questions et réponses: 358 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of these statements describes the Check Point IPS software blade?
A. Blocks or limits usage of web applications
B. A worldwide collaborative security network
C. Prevents vulnerability exploits
D. Controls access to web sites based on category
Answer: C

CheckPoint   156-727.77 examen   certification 156-727.77   156-727.77 examen

NO.2 Which TCP ports allow LDAP users to communicate with the Account Unit?
A. 689 clear, or 336 encrypted
B. 636 clear, or 389 encrypted
C. 336 clear, or 689 encrypted
D. 389 clear, or 636 encrypted
Answer: D

certification CheckPoint   156-727.77 examen   certification 156-727.77   156-727.77   156-727.77 examen

NO.3 Which software blades are characteristic to a Threat Prevention Appliance?
A. Anti-Virus, Anti-Bot, IPS, Identity Awareness
B. Anti-Virus, Anti-Bot, IPS, URL Filtering, Identity Awareness
C. Anti-Virus, Anti-Bot, IPS, Application Control, URL Filtering, Identity Awareness
D. Anti-Virus, Anti-Bot, IPS, URL Filtering, Identity Awareness, SmartEvent
Answer: B

certification CheckPoint   156-727.77   156-727.77   certification 156-727.77

NO.4 Which of these statements describes the Check Point ThreatCloud?
A. A worldwide collaborative security network
B. Prevents vulnerability exploits
C. Controls access to web sites based on category
D. Blocks or limits usage of web applications
Answer: A

CheckPoint examen   certification 156-727.77   156-727.77 examen   certification 156-727.77

NO.5 Check Point Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) is available in two deployment methods, as a
blade and also a dedicated appliance. What is the dedicated appliance called?
A. InterSpect Appliance
B. IPS-1 Sensor
C. Smart-1 Appliance
D. Power-1 Appliance
Answer: B

certification CheckPoint   156-727.77 examen   certification 156-727.77   156-727.77 examen   certification 156-727.77

NO.6 Can the Anti-Bot software blade be enabled on a Secure Web Gateway as well?
A. Yes, this is an optional blade for the Secure Web Gateway.
B. No, Anti-Bot needs to be part of the Threat Prevention Appliance.
C. Yes, it can be enabled if IPS is enabled as well.
D. Yes, Anti-Bot is always enabled together with Identity Awareness.
Answer: A

certification CheckPoint   156-727.77 examen   certification 156-727.77   certification 156-727.77   156-727.77 examen

NO.7 Which of these is a Check Point Firewall attribute?
A. Malicious P2P application protection
B. Buffer overflow prevention
C. Worm injection blocking
D. Granular access control
Answer: D

certification CheckPoint   156-727.77 examen   156-727.77 examen

NO.8 What is the minimum amount of RAM needed for a Threat Prevention Appliance?
A. 4 GB
B. It depends on the number of software blades enabled.
C. 2 GB with GAiA in 32-bit mode, 4 GB with GAiA in 64-bit mode
D. 6 GB
Answer: A

CheckPoint   certification 156-727.77   certification 156-727.77   certification 156-727.77   156-727.77   156-727.77

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Code d'Examen: 9L0-406
Nom d'Examen: Apple (Mac Integration Basics Exam)
Questions et réponses: 45 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 9L0-517
Nom d'Examen: Apple (ACTC 10.7 Recertification Exam)
Questions et réponses: 93 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 9L0-412
Nom d'Examen: Apple (OS X Support Essentials 10.8 Exam)
Questions et réponses: 86 Q&As

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NO.1 How can you update the software of an OS X Lion Server computer from a remote admin computer,
using Server app?
A. Enable the Software Update service, and click Start Software Update.
B. Click Alerts in the sidebar, double-click any alert for an available software update, and then click Install.
C. Select the server name under Hardware in the sidebar, click the Updates tab, and then click Install.
D. Select Server Updates from the Tools menu, click Check Now, and then click Install.
Answer: B

Apple examen   9L0-517 examen   9L0-517

NO.2 Which procedure will prevent guest users from seeing a specific shared folder that is hosted on an OS X
Lion Server?
A. Enable the Hidden flag on the folder.
B. Set the folder's permissions for Everyone Else to No Access.
C. Add a period to the beginning of the folder's name.
D. Click the folder, then select Get Info from the File menu, and click the option "Hide from Guest Users."
Answer: B

Apple   certification 9L0-517   9L0-517   9L0-517

NO.3 Review the screenshot, and then answer the question below.
Using AFP, you copy a file from your Mac into the shared folder shown above. Members of the staff group
report that they are unable to edit the file.
Assuming no ACLs have been configured, what is the MOST LIKELY reason for this issue.?
A. Everyone permissions apply to the staff group because the staff group's GID has been changed.
B. The file is locked.
C. The group permission for the file is set to read-only.
D. Members of the staff group do not have write access to /tmp/_caches on the server.
Answer: C

Apple   9L0-517   certification 9L0-517   9L0-517

NO.4 Which protocol can iCal clients use to access iCal service calendar files on an OS X Lion Server
computer?
A. AFP
B. FTP
C. NFS
D. SMB
E. HTTP
Answer: E

Apple   9L0-517 examen   certification 9L0-517   certification 9L0-517

NO.5 What token does a client computer present to OS X Lion Server in order to authenticate to a
kerberized service running on the server?
A. A ticket-granting ticket (TGT) obtained from the Key Distribution Center (KDC)
B. A service ticket obtained from the Key Distribution Center (KDC)
C. The user's password
D. A client-generated service ticket
Answer: A

certification Apple   9L0-517 examen   certification 9L0-517   9L0-517 examen   certification 9L0-517

NO.6 Which statement best describes the wiki in OS X Lion Server?
A. A series of date-stamped and chronologically ordered entries on a website
B. A collaborative website that can be edited within a web browser
C. A website that is configured to provide access to mail accounts
D. A folder on a website, with permissions that restrict access to the files it contains
Answer: B

Apple   9L0-517   9L0-517 examen   9L0-517   certification 9L0-517

NO.7 What are TWO ways an administrator can deliver a profile to iOS devices? (Choose 2.)
A. Email the profile as an attachment to the user with instructions to install it on the iOS device.
B. Distribute the profile to users' computers over the network, then tell users to sync their devices to their
computers using iTunes.
C. Connect each iOS device to an admin computer, and copy the .pfm file to the device.
D. Post the profile on the App Store, and tell users to download it.
E. Using Profile Manager, push the profile to an enrolled iOS device.
Answer: A, E

certification Apple   9L0-517 examen   9L0-517

NO.8 Which statement is true about Open Directory locales in OS X Lion Server?
A. Locales integrate the Open Directory domain with Active Directory forest names.
B. Locales organize Open Directory servers according to the subnet that they service.
C. Administrators can define locales to allow users to interact with services in the language of their
choice.
D. Locales affect which folders, if any, appear in the Network view on a Mac client computer.
Answer: B

Apple   9L0-517   certification 9L0-517   9L0-517 examen   9L0-517 examen   9L0-517

Dernières Apple 9L0-418 9L0-314 9L0-518 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 9L0-418
Nom d'Examen: Apple (Mac Management Basics 10.9 Exam)
Questions et réponses: 50 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 9L0-314
Nom d'Examen: Apple (Apple Hardware Recertification exam)
Questions et réponses: 124 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 9L0-518
Nom d'Examen: Apple (OS X Server Essentials 10.8 Exam)
Questions et réponses: 116 Q&As

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NO.1 When configuring your firewall to let your MDM use the Apple Push Notification service,
you should open networking ports for which networkaddress or addressrange?
A. 17.0.0.0/ 8
B. 17.151.0.0/16
C. 17.151.36.0/ 23
D. 17.151.140.0/ 24
E. 17.151.140.30
F. 17.151.20.254
Answer: A

certification Apple   9L0-418   9L0-418 examen   certification 9L0-418

NO.2 Which typeofnetwork disk image Should you create to perform a block copy to install a disk
image on a Mac?
A. NetBoot
B. NetInstall
C. NetRestore
Answer: C

Apple   certification 9L0-418   9L0-418 examen   9L0-418   9L0-418 examen   9L0-418 examen
Reference:http://training.apple.com/pdf/Mac_Management_Basics_10.8.pdf(page 15, netrestore)
6. Which utility do you use to create network boot images?
A. hdiutil
B. Disk Utility
C. System Image Utility
D. NetBoot Imaging Utility
Answer: C

Apple examen   certification 9L0-418   9L0-418   certification 9L0-418   certification 9L0-418
Reference:http://support.apple.com/kb/PH15419(disk images, second para)
7. Which THREE reports can Apple Remote Desktop run by default? (Choose THREE)
A. CPU Usage
B. Software Serial Number
C. Software Version
D. Application Usage
E. Software Difference
F. Network Usage
Answer: C,D,F

Apple   certification 9L0-418   certification 9L0-418
8. You have a USB flash drive connected to a Mavericks computer that has the OS X Mavericks
Installer app downloaded. Which of these stepsshould you performto make the flash drive a
bootable installer volume?
A. Use Disk Utility to restore the disk image contained within the OS X Mavericks Installer app to the
USB flash drive
B. In Terminal, use the create install media command contained within the OS X Mavericks Installer
app to make the flash drive bootable using Installer app
C. In Terminal, use diskutil command to restore the disk image contained within the OS X Mavericks
Installer app to the USB flash drive
D. Copy the OS X Mavericks Installer app to the flash drive and create a workflow in Automator that
uses the Bless Installer Volume action to make the flash drive bootable
Answer: A

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Reference:http://www.macworld.com/article/ 2151706 /create-a-bootable-mavericks-installdrive-for-
newer-macs.html

NO.3 What's the file extension for a configuration profile?
A. .xml
B. .plist
C. .profile
D. .mobileconfig
Answer: B

Apple   certification 9L0-418   certification 9L0-418   certification 9L0-418
Reference:http://training.apple.com/pdf/wp_osx_configuration_profiles_mav.pdf(p.7)

NO.4 You have configured a computer with OS X Server to act as a Caching server. Which
networking requirement must be in place so that clientcomputers can use theCaching server?
A. The server and client computers must share the same public IP address behind a NAT.
B. All client computers must use static IP addresses.
C. All client computers must be on the same subnet.
D. All client computers must be on the same Wi-Fi network.
Answer: C

Apple examen   9L0-418   9L0-418 examen   9L0-418 examen   9L0-418 examen

NO.5 Which application do you use to configure and monitor the Software Update service on a
computer running OS X Server?
A. Server app
B. A web browser
C. Workgroup Manager
D. Profile Manager
Answer: A

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Reference:http://krypted.com/mac-security/using-the-software-update-service-on-mountainlion-se
rver/

Meilleur IIA IIA-CFSA IIA-CIA-Part3 test formation guide

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Code d'Examen: IIA-CFSA
Nom d'Examen: IIA (Certified Financial Services Auditor)
Questions et réponses: 511 Q&As

Code d'Examen: IIA-CIA-Part3
Nom d'Examen: IIA (Certified Internal Auditor - Part 3, Business Analysis and Information Technology)
Questions et réponses: 1554 Q&As

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NO.1 Focusing on customers, promoting innovation, learning new philosophies, driving out fear, and
providing extensive training are all elements of a major change in organizations. These elements are
aimed primarily at:
A. Copying leading organizations to better compete with them.
B. Focusing on the total quality of products and services.
C. Being efficient and effective at the same time, in order to indirectly affect profits.
D. Managing costs of products and services better, in order to become the low-cost provider.
Answer: B

certification IIA   certification IIA-CIA-Part3   IIA-CIA-Part3 examen   certification IIA-CIA-Part3
Explanation:
TQM is a comprehensive approach to quality. It treats the pursuit of quality as a basic organizational
function that is as important as production or marketing. TQM is the continuous pursuit of quality in
every aspect of organizational activities through (1) a philosophy of doing it right the first time; (2)
employee training and empowerment; (3) promotion of teamwork; (4) improvement of processes;
and (5) attention to satisfaction of customers, both internal and external. TQM emphasizes the
supplier's relationship with the customer, identifies customer needs, and recognizes that everyone
in a process is at some time a customer or supplier of someone else, either inside or outside of the
organization.

NO.2 Which of the following costs of quality is a failure cost?
A. Systems development costs.
B. Costs of inspecting in-process items.
C. Contract penalty for delivery of nonconforming goods.
D. Costs of quality circles.
Answer: C

IIA   certification IIA-CIA-Part3   certification IIA-CIA-Part3   certification IIA-CIA-Part3
Explanation:
Failure costs are incurred after defective output has been removed from production. A contract
penalty for faulty goods is an example of an external failure cost.

NO.3 Which of the following is a characteristic of total quality management (TQM)?
A. Management by objectives.
B. On-the-job training by other workers.
C. Quality by final inspection.
D. Education and self-improvement.
Answer: D

IIA examen   IIA-CIA-Part3 examen   IIA-CIA-Part3 examen   IIA-CIA-Part3 examen
Explanation:
TQM is the continuous pursuit of quality in every aspect of organizational activities. One of the
means of achieving this is through employee training and empowerment.

NO.4 The use of teams in total quality management (TQM) is important because:
A. Well-managed teams can be highly creative and are able to address complex problems better
than individuals can.
B. Teams are quicker to make decisions, thereby helping to reduce cycle time.
C. Employee motivation is higher for team members than for individual contributors.
D. The use of teams eliminates the need for supervision, thereby allowing a company to become
leaner and more profitable.
Answer: A

certification IIA   certification IIA-CIA-Part3   IIA-CIA-Part3 examen   IIA-CIA-Part3 examen
Explanation:
Teams can use the diverse knowledge and skills of all team members. Employee involvement means
training and empowering employees to harness their creativity for problem solving. Quality control
circles are used to obtain input from employees and to locate the best perspective on problem
solving.

NO.5 All of the following are generally included in a cost-of-quality report except:
A. Warranty claims.
B. Design engineering.
C. Supplier evaluations.
D. Lost contribution margin.
Answer: D

certification IIA   certification IIA-CIA-Part3   certification IIA-CIA-Part3   IIA-CIA-Part3   certification IIA-CIA-Part3
Explanation:
A cost-of-quality report includes most costs related to quality, specifically the costs of prevention,
appraisal, internal failure, and external failure.
11. Which of the following is not an appropriate measure of quality?
A. Market share.
B. Delivery performance.
C. Customer satisfaction.
D. Raw materials costs.
Answer: D

IIA examen   IIA-CIA-Part3   certification IIA-CIA-Part3   IIA-CIA-Part3   IIA-CIA-Part3   IIA-CIA-Part3
Explanation:
Emphasizing lower input costs may result in more defective output, and higher input costs may or
may not reflect the procurement of better raw materials. Financial measures are thus mostly
unsuitable for measuring quality.
12. One of the main reasons that implementation of a total quality management (TQM) program
works better through the use of teams is:
A. Teams are more efficient and help an organization reduce its staffing.
B. Employee motivation is always higher for team members than for individual contributors.
C. Teams are a natural vehicle for sharing ideas, which leads to process improvement.
D. The use of teams eliminates the need for supervision, thereby allowing a company to reduce
staffing.
Answer: C

IIA examen   IIA-CIA-Part3   certification IIA-CIA-Part3
Explanation:
TQM promotes teamwork by modifying or eliminating traditional (and rigid) vertical hierarchies and
instead forming flexible groups of specialists. Quality circles, cross-functional teams, and
self-managed teams are typical formats. Teams are an excellent means of encouraging the sharing
of ideas and removing process improvement obstacles.
13. If a company is customer-centered, its customers are defined as:
A. Only people external to the company who have purchased something from the company.
B. Only people internal to the company who directly use its product.
C. Anyone external to the company and those internal who rely on its product to get their job done.
D. Everybody external to the company who is currently doing, or may in the future do, business with
the company.
Answer: C

IIA   certification IIA-CIA-Part3   certification IIA-CIA-Part3   certification IIA-CIA-Part3
Explanation:
One of the principles of total quality management (TQM) is customer orientation, whether the
customer is internal or external. An internal customer is a member of the organization who relies on
another member's work to accomplish his/her task.
14. Management of a company is attempting to build a reputation as a world-class manufacturer
of quality products. Which of the following measures would not be used by the firm to measure
quality?
A. The percentage of shipments returned by customers because of poor quality.
B. The number of parts shipped per day.
C. The number of defective parts per million.
D. The percentage of products passing quality tests the firsttime
Answer: B

IIA examen   certification IIA-CIA-Part3   IIA-CIA-Part3 examen
Explanation:
The number of parts shipped per day would most likely be used as a measure of the effectiveness
and efficiency of shipping procedures, not the quality of the product. This measure does not
consider how many of the parts are defective.
15. Quality costing is similar in service and manufacturing organizations. Nevertheless, the
differences
between these organizations have certain implications for quality management. Thus,
A. Direct labor costs are usually a higher percentage of total costs in manufacturing organizations.
B. External failure costs are relatively greater in service organizations.
C. Quality improvements resulting in more efficient use of labor time are more likely to be accepted
by employees in service organizations.
D. Poor service is less likely to result in loss of customers than a faulty product.
Answer: B

certification IIA   certification IIA-CIA-Part3   IIA-CIA-Part3 examen   IIA-CIA-Part3 examen   IIA-CIA-Part3 examen   certification IIA-CIA-Part3
Explanation:
External failure costs arise when problems occur after delivery. They occur because products or
services are nonconforming or otherwise do not satisfy customers. External failure costs in service
enterprises are even more important than in manufacturing environments. Faulty goods sometimes
maybe reworked or replaced to a customer's satisfaction, but poor service tends to result in a loss of
customers.
16. A means of limiting production delays caused by equipment breakdown and repair is to:
A. Schedule production based on capacity planning.
B. Plan maintenance activity based on an analysis of equipment repair work orders.
C. Pre-authorize equipment maintenance and overtime pay.
D. Establish a preventive maintenance program for all production equipment.
Answer: D

IIA examen   certification IIA-CIA-Part3   IIA-CIA-Part3 examen   IIA-CIA-Part3   IIA-CIA-Part3
Explanation:
A preventive maintenance program reduces equipment breakdowns and repairs.
17. Under a total quality management (TQM) approach,
A. Measurement occurs throughout the process, and errors are caught and corrected at the source.
B. Quality control is performed by highly trained inspectors at the end of the production process.
C. Upper management assumes the primary responsibility for the quality of the products and
services.
D. A large number of suppliers are used in order to obtain the lowest possible prices.
Answer: A

IIA examen   certification IIA-CIA-Part3   certification IIA-CIA-Part3   certification IIA-CIA-Part3   certification IIA-CIA-Part3
Explanation:
TQM emphasizes quality as a basic organizational function. TQM is the continuous pursuit of quality
in every aspect of organizational activities. One of the basic principles of TQM is doing it right the
first time. Thus, errors should be caught and corrected at the source.
18. Which of the following is a key to successful total quality management (TQM)?
A. Training quality inspectors.
B. Focusing intensely on the customer.
C. Creating appropriate hierarchies to increase efficiency.
D. Establishing a well-defined quality standard, then focusing on meeting it.
Answer: B

IIA   IIA-CIA-Part3 examen   IIA-CIA-Part3 examen   certification IIA-CIA-Part3   IIA-CIA-Part3 examen
Explanation:
TQM emphasizes satisfaction of customers, both internal and external. TQM considers the supplier's
relationship with the customer, identifies customer needs, and recognizes that everyone in a
process is at some time a customer or supplier of someone else, either inside or outside of the
organization. Thus, TQM begins with external customer requirements, identifies internal
customer-supplier relationships and requirements, and establishes requirements for external
suppliers.
19. The four categories of costs associated with product quality costs are:
A. External failure, internal failure, prevention, and carrying.
B. External failure, internal failure, prevention, and appraisal.
C. External failure, internal failure, training, and appraisal.
D. Warranty, product liability, training, and appraisal.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Prevention costs are incurred to prevent defects. Appraisal costs are incurred to detect defective
output during and after the production process. Internal failure costs are associated with defective
output discovered before shipping. External failure costs are associated with defective output
discovered after it has reached the customer.
20. Statistical quality control often involves the use of control charts whose basic purpose is to:
A. Determine when accounting control procedures are not working.
B. Control labor costs in production operations.
C. Detect performance trends away from normal operations.
D. Monitor internal control applications of information technology.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Statistical control charts are graphic aids for monitoring the status of any process subject to random
variations. The chart consists of three horizontal lines plotted on a horizontal time scale. The vertical
scale represents the appropriate quantitative measure. The center line represents the average range
or overall mean for the process being controlled. The other two lines are the upper control limit and
the lower control limit. The processes are measured periodically, and the values are plotted on the
chart. If the value falls within the control limits, no action is taken. If the value falls outside the limits,
the process is considered "out of control," and an investigation is made for possible corrective
action. Another advantage of the chart is that it makes trends visible.

NO.6 A company with many branch stores has decided to use its best-performing store as a
benchmark organization for the purpose of analyzing the accuracy and reliability of branch store
financial reporting.
Which one of the following is the most likely measure to be included in a financial benchmark?
A. High turnover of employees.
B. High level of employee participation in setting budgets.
C. High amount of bad debt write-offs.
D. High number of suppliers.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Internal benchmarking is the application of best practices in one part of the organization (e.g., a
high-performing branch store) to its other parts (other branches). This process requires, among
other things, use of quantitative and qualitative measures. A key indicator for financial performance
measurement is the amount of bad debt write-offs. A high level of bad debt write-offs could
indicate fraud, which would compromise the accuracy and reliability of financial reports. Bad debt
write-offs may result from recording fictitious sales.

NO.7 Which of the following is not required by ISO 9000 standards?
A. Establishment of a quality management system.
B. Creation of an internal audit system.
C. Consistent high quality products.
D. Onsite inspections by a registrar.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
ISO 9000 is a set of generic standards for establishing and maintaining a quality system within an
entity. The standards provide no basis forjudging the quality of the end product. The marketplace
makes this determination. The objective of ISO 9000 standards is to ensure consistent quality.

NO.8 A traditional quality control process in manufacturing consists of mass inspection of goods
only at the end of a production process. A major deficiency of the traditional control process is that:
A. It is expensive to do the inspections at the end of the process.
B. It is not possible to rework defective items.
C. It is not 100% effective.
D. It does not focus on improving the entire production process.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
The process used to produce the goods is not thoroughly reviewed and evaluated for efficiency and
effectiveness. Preventing defects and increasing efficiency by improving the production process
raises quality standards and decreases costs.