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Code d'Examen: BCP-220

Nom d'Examen: BlackBerry (supporting BlackBerry Devices BlackBerry Interent Service)

Questions et réponses: 128 Q&As

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NO.1 What information is sent to a BlackBerry device when a BlackBerry device user clicks Send Service
Books from the BlackBerry Internet Service account? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerry Internet Service service books
B. Email integration service books
C. BlackBerry Internet Service and email integration service books
D. Email integration service books and auto signature service books
E. Provisioning service books
Answer: B

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NO.2 A BlackBerry device user is unable to successfully add a contact to the BlackBerry Messenger list.
The contact is also a BlackBerry device user. The contact is stuck in the Pending state. Which of the
following would cause this problem to occur? (Choose one.)
A. The BlackBerry device is not provisioned for BlackBerry Instant Messaging
B. The contact has not accepted the invitation on the BlackBerry device
C. The user is attempting to add the contact by email address, which is unsupported
D. Peer-to-Peer encryption has been set on the BlackBerry device, blocking the contact from being added
E. The user does not have the BlackBerry Internet Browsing Service service book
Answer: B

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NO.3 What are two limitations of the BlackBerry Desktop Redirector? (Choose two.)
A. 15 minute message polling cycle
B. Requires constant Internet connectivity
C. Provides no attachment support
D. Requires a USB connection
E. Has unencrypted message transmission
Answer: B,C

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NO.4 BlackBerry Desktop Manager shows the BlackBerry device as Connected and then quickly shows it as
Disconnected when connecting using Bluetooth. Which of the following would cause this issue to occur?
(Choose one.)
A. An anti-virus program is blocking the Bluetooth connection to BlackBerry Desktop Manager
B. The Bluetooth software has not been installed on the BlackBerry device
C. Improper Bluetooth drivers are installed on the desktop computer
D. BlackBerry Desktop Manager has not been installed correctly
E. The Bluetooth hardware that is installed on the computer is unsupported
Answer: A

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NO.5 A BlackBerry device user has a media card in the BlackBerry device, but the BlackBerry device memory
is full. Which three of the following actions should the user take to resolve this issue? (Choose three.)
A. Perform an Application Load on the BlackBerry device to install additional memory
B. Make sure the BlackBerry device is set to automatically delete old email messages
C. Enable Content Compression on the BlackBerry device
D. Uninstall third-party applications
E. Move pictures from the BlackBerry device memory to the media card
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.6 Email messages deleted from an integrated Yahoo! email account are not being removed from the
BlackBerry device after being deleted from the Yahoo! web site. What are two possible causes for this
issue? (Choose two.)
A. The check box for "Synchronize deleted items between this mailbox and my device" is not checked
B. The Wireless Reconcile option on the BlackBerry device is turned off
C. The Pop Forwarding option on the integrated Yahoo! email account is set to POP access only
D. The email application is configured to "Leave a copy of messages on the server"
E. The On Conflicts option on the BlackBerry device is set to Handheld Wins
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 A BlackBerry device user is having difficulty sending email messages that include attachments from
the BlackBerry device. What should the user do to resolve this issue? (Choose one.)
A. Change the Attachment Compression settings to Low on the BlackBerry device
B. Compress the attachments using the BlackBerry Zip To Go application before sending
C. Use Roxio Media Manager to convert the attachments for Optimal Upload
D. Use Bluetooth to send attachments larger than 2.6MB
E. Ensure the total attachment size does not exceed 5MB
Answer: E

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NO.8 A BlackBerry device user is trying to install BlackBerry Desktop Manager. The installation fails with the
following error message: Error 1904 Which two of the following troubleshooting steps should the user
employ to address this issue? (Choose two.)
A. Unregister and re-register the atl.dll file
B. Remove any IT policies from the BlackBerry device
C. Install BlackBerry Desktop Manager on a different Windows profile
D. Install a supported version of Microsoft Outlook
E. Update the MAPI subsystem to a compatible version
Answer: A,C

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NO.9 Which two pieces of information are required to add a work email address to a BlackBerry Internet
Service account through advanced integration? (Choose two.)
A. The type of email integration
B. The messaging server address
C. The user name and password
D. The number of users on the messaging server
E. The MAC address of the messaging server
Answer: B,C

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NO.10 How many email accounts can be added to a BlackBerry Internet Service account? (Choose one.)
A. Ten third-party email accounts and one BlackBerry email address
B. Nine third-party email accounts and one BlackBerry email address
C. Up to ten email accounts with any combination of BlackBerry email addresses and third-party email
accounts
D. No limit on third-party email accounts and one BlackBerry email address
E. Up to eleven email accounts with any combination of BlackBerry email addresses and third-party email
accounts
Answer: A

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NO.11 A BlackBerry device user is not able to log in to an online banking site using the BlackBerry Internet
Browsing Service, although other web sites can be successfully accessed. Which of the following might
cause this issue to occur? (Choose one.)
A. The browser content cache is full
B. The web site's security is set too high
C. The BlackBerry device security options are set too high
D. The BlackBerry device Push Content feature is not enabled
E. The BlackBerry device is roaming on a different wireless service provider's mobile network
Answer: B

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NO.12 What are two purposes of the Reply To field within an integrated email account? (Choose two.)
A. The email address contained in the Reply To field will be used as the reply address for anyone that
receives email messages from this email integration.
B. The email address contained in the Reply To field will be used as the reply address for anyone that
receives forwarded email messages from this email integration.
C. The email address contained in the Reply To field will automatically be added to the CC field of any
replies sent from this email integration.
D. The email address contained in the Reply To field will replace the Sent address on any email
messages received from this email integration.
E. The email address contained in the Reply To field will be added as a Favorite to the Reply field when
replying to email messages sent to this email integration.
Answer: A,D

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NO.13 Email messages deleted from a BlackBerry device are not being removed from the BlackBerry device
user's email application for an integrated IMAP email account. Which of the following might cause this to
happen? (Choose one.)
A. The user's email application was configured to access the messaging server using POP settings
B. Wireless message reconciliation is not supported for integrated IMAP email accounts
C. The user has disabled wireless email reconciliation in the BlackBerry Internet Service account
D. The user has not enabled email reconciliation in BlackBerry Desktop Manager
E. The BlackBerry device is provisioned for BlackBerry Enterprise Server service on the wireless data
network
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which of the following might prevent BlackBerry device users from installing Google Maps on their
BlackBerry devices.? (Choose one.)
A. The BlackBerry device memory is full
B. It is an unsupported application
C. The BlackBerry device is not provisioned for BlackBerry Enterprise Plus services
D. The users do not have BlackBerry Internet Service accounts
E. A BlackBerry Internet Service policy is blocking the application
Answer: A

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NO.15 A BlackBerry device user's BlackBerry device stops receiving email messages from an integrated
Yahoo! email account. What are three possible causes for this issue? (Choose three.)
A. There are email messages with attachments over 8MB in the user's Inbox
B. The user changed the password for the Yahoo! email account
C. The user entered the incorrect password on the BlackBerry device, ten times
D. Yahoo!'s anti-spam application is blocking incoming email messages from going to the user's Inbox
E. The service book for the email account has been deleted from the BlackBerry device
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.16 When are you required to use the advanced integration feature of the BlackBerry Internet Service?
(Choose one.)
A. When integrating a third-party email account that requires a proxy server
B. When integrating a BlackBerry Internet Service account that has a password specified
C. When integrating a Microsoft Outlook Web Access email account that has an Internet Security and
Acceleration Server
D. When integrating a third-party email account that requires a user name not found in the email address
E. When integrating a Yahoo! email account in order to receive instant email message notifications
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which two of the following synchronization options for the Calendar Data range can be customized for
BlackBerry Desktop Manager? (Choose two.)
A. Choose > Select Task Range
B. Enable Quick Entry
C. Choose to Transfer all past items
D. Select All scheduled items
E. Choose to Transfer only future items
Answer: D,E

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NO.18 A new BlackBerry device user wants to create a BlackBerry Internet Service account but is unable to
locate the Email Settings application on the BlackBerry device. Why is the user unable to locate this
application? (Choose one.)
A. The BlackBerry device has not been registered on the wireless network yet
B. The BlackBerry device has Email Reconciliation disabled in the Message options
C. The BlackBerry device has been provisioned for BlackBerry Enterprise Server Plus service
D. The user has selected the incorrect wireless service provider from the login screen
E. The user included invalid characters during the password selection
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which final step must be performed by BlackBerry device users after migrating from an Automatic
Login account to a Classic Mode account before they can receive new email messages? (Choose one.)
A. Create a new password for the BlackBerry Internet Service account
B. Send service books to the BlackBerry device
C. Perform a hard reset and re-register the BlackBerry device on the wireless network
D. Accept the End User Licensing Agreement after logging into the BlackBerry Internet Service web site
E. Re-validate any BlackBerry device hosted email addresses and third-party email integrations
Answer: E

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NO.20 A BlackBerry device user has three integrated email accounts with the BlackBerry Internet Service:
Yahoo!, Gmail, and an integrated POP email account. Email messages arrive on the BlackBerry device
almost immediately after being received by the Yahoo! and Gmail email accounts. With the integrated
POP email account, it can take up to 15 minutes from the time the email message arrives in the mailbox
until it arrives on the BlackBerry device. What might cause this issue? (Choose one.)
A. Integrated POP email accounts are polled at 15 minute intervals by the BlackBerry Internet Service
B. The user's BlackBerry device is provisioned for BlackBerry Enterprise Plus Service
C. The Instant Polls feature is disabled for this specific POP email account on the BlackBerry Internet
Service account
D. The BlackBerry device does not have sufficient wireless coverage
E. The user's email messages are being sorted to a .pst folder by the desktop email application
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-871

Nom d'Examen: MYSQL (MySQL 5.0 Developer Certified Professional Exam, Part I)

Questions et réponses: 69 Q&As

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NO.1 In non-strict mode, assuming that the table city does not already exist and you execute the following
sequence of commands: CREATE TABLE city (city_name CHAR(5)) INSERT INTO city (city_name)
VALUES ('NEW YORK'), ('TOKYO'), (23+345), ('LONDON') -- Ignoring any errors or warnings that may be
issued, which values are now in the table?
A. 'NEW YORK', 'TOKYO', '23+345', 'LONDON'
B. 'NEW Y', 'TOKYO', '23+34', 'LONDO'
C. 'NEW YORK', 'TOKYO', ' ', 'LONDON'
D. 'NEW Y', 'TOKYO', '368', 'LONDO'
E. 'NEW YORK', 'TOKYO', '368', 'LONDON'
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following statements are true? Databases don't have a default character set or collation.
A. Databases don't have a default character set or collation.
B. Database have a default character set and a default collation.
C. When creating a table within a database without specifying a character set and a collation, the default
character set and collation from the database are being used.
D. If a default character set and collation are defined for a database, settings for tables defined in that
database will be ignored.
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 Which of the following are true in relation to character set and collation relationships in MySQL?
A. A collation may belong to only one character set.
B. A collation may belong to many character sets.
C. A character set may have only one collation.
D. A character set may have many collations.
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 Consider the following:
Which of the quoted values below will be returned for the name field in the SELECT results?
A. ' Tom'
B. ' Tom '
C. 'Tom'
D. 'Tom '
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following statements will provide a list of all of the databases with a name that starts with
'world'?
A. SELECT SCHEMA_NAME AS `Database` FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.SCHEMATA
WHERE SCHEMA_NAME LIKE 'world%'
B. SELECT SCHEMA_NAME AS `Database` FROM SCHEMATA_INFORMATION.SCHEMATA
WHERE SCHEMA_NAME LIKE 'world%'
C. SELECT NAME AS `Database` FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.DATABASE WHERE NAME
LIKE 'world%'
D. SELECT NAME AS `Database` FROM SCHEMATA_INFORMATION.DATABASE WHERE
NAME LIKE 'world%'
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following are a valid identifier for the user table in the mysql database.?
A. mysql.user
B. `mysql.user`
C. `mysql`.`user`
D. mysql.`user`
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.7 You want to create two databases, test and Test. Which of the following statements is true?
A. You can create both databases because database names in MySQL are case sensitive.
B. You can create both databases when your operating system supports case sensitive directory names.
C. You can create both databases when you quote delimited the database names like `test` and `Test`.
D. You can create both databases since t and T are different in the ASCII character set.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Ignoring any warnings that may be issued, which of the following statements will delete the `world`
database and its entire contents on execution, but return no error if it doesn't exist?
A. DROP DATABASE `world` IGNORE ERRORS
B. DROP IF EXISTS DATABASE `world`
C. DROP DATABASE IF EXISTS `world`
D. DELETE DATABASE `world` IGNORE ERRORS
E. DELETE IF EXISTS DATABASE `world`
F. DELETE DATABASE IF EXISTS `world`
Answer: C

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NO.9 Is the following statement true or false? "Each database corresponds to a single directory under data
directory, regardless of what storage engine table uses in the database"
A. true
B. false
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following statements will return a list of all of the databases with a name that starts with
'pro'?
A. LIST DATABASES WHERE NAME LIKE 'pro%'
B. SHOW DATABASES WHERE NAME LIKE 'pro%'
C. SELECT DATABASES WHERE NAME LIKE 'pro%'
D. LIST DATABASES LIKE 'pro%'
E. SHOW DATABASES LIKE 'pro%'
F. SELECT DATABASES LIKE 'pro%'
Answer: E

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Code d'Examen: C-BOWI-30

Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - SAP BusinessObjects Web Intelligence XI 3.x)

Questions et réponses: 139 Q&As

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NO.1 You are creating a report to summarize the number of cars sold by region. Which object
should you use to aggregate the number of cars sold?
A. Sum
B. Detail
C. Measure
D. Dimension
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which three statements about the If() function are correct? (Choose three.)
A. Values within the function must be in quotes.
B. The function can be used to create a variable.
C. The function can contain an aggregate function.
D. Then and Else keywords can be used within the function instead of the semicolon.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.3 Which two are benefits of using breaks? (Choose two.)
A. Creates a navigation map
B. Makes the table block easier to read
C. Splits the block into smaller table blocks
D. Enables the use of subtotals in one block
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 Which BusinessObjects Enterprise tool supports Offline Mode logins?
A. InfoView
B. Java Panel
C. Interactive Panel
D. Web Intelligence Rich Client
Answer: D

SAP   C-BOWI-30   C-BOWI-30

NO.5 Which four Report Elements can you select from the Templates tab of Web Intelligence?
(Choose four.)
A. Data
B. Report
C. Tables
D. Charts
E. Free-standing cells
Answer: B,C,D,E

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NO.6 Which two are benefits of creating queries from existing queries? (Choose two.)
A. Improved query security
B. Accurate duplication of query parameters
C. Improved performance of query execution
D. Reduced creation time for complex reports
Answer: B,D

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NO.7 Which two search criteria are valid when using Delegated List of Values? (Choose two.)
A. a*
B. *a
C. a%
D. %a
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 Which method can you use to change the object qualification of an object within Web
Intelligence Rich Client?
A. In the Query panel, select the qualification.
B. In the Document Properties, select the qualification.
C. In Query View, right-click and select the qualification.
D. Select the object, right-click and select the qualification.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which two properties can you set in the hyperlink dialog box when you create a hyperlink to a
document?
(Choose two.)
A. Refresh on open
B. Color and font style for the link
C. Drill level for the target document
D. Link to a specific area in the document
Answer: A,D

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NO.10 Which operator should you use to control the output context of a calculation that is relevant
to the different environment levels within your document?
A. In
B. Out
C. ForAll
D. ForEach
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: C_TBIT44_71

Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Development Associate - Process Integration with SAP NetWeaver (PI 7.1))

Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 You configure the sender RFC adapter to convert RFC calls from a sender to XML messages. These
XML messages are then sent to the Integration Server or to the PCK.
What is the purpose of the RFC adapter parameter "Program ID"?
A. The Program ID is a unique identifier for outbound proxies.
B. The Program ID must uniquely describe the RFC sender communication channel in the configured
application server gateway.
C. The Program ID identifies proxy classes for Service Interfaces.
D. The Program ID is used in correlation for binding abstract interfaces.
Answer: B

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NO.2 The PI Mail adapter is used to send and receive emails. Which protocols are supported?
A. SMTP
B. HTTP
C. IMAP4
D. POP3
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.3 You are implementing an IDoc-based scenario using SAP Netweaver PI and more specifically the
sender IDoc adapter.
Which of these steps are mandatory for the sender IDoc adapter to function properly?
A. IDoc metadata must be imported into the Enterprise Services Repository.
B. The Logical System name (ALE name) for the Business System must be defined in the SLD.
C. A sender communication channel must be defined in the Integration Builder.
D. An RFC destination must be defined on the sender system, pointing to the Integration Server client.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.4 For the delivery mode of an integration process, you can choose between inbound processing with or
without buffering.
Which of these statements correctly describes the Inbound processing mode?
A. SAP recommends the mode for inbound processing with buffering.
B. SAP recommends the mode for inbound processing without buffering.
C. If you select inbound processing without buffering, the qRFC entry returns an error when a message is
to be delivered to a process instance for which no receive step is active.
D. If you select inbound processing with buffering and there is no active receive step available to receive
an incoming message, the message is buffered in a separate, process-instance-specific queue.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.5 You have created a deadline branch. When the deadline has expired, the integration process should be
canceled.
How can this be achieved?
A. In the deadline branch, insert a control step that cancels the process.
B. The process is automatically stopped once the deadline has expired.
C. As the process can only be stopped by the administrator, a control step that raises an alert to inform
the administrator has to be inserted.
D. Insert a switch with an appropriate condition to stop the process.
Answer: A

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NO.6 The communication between the Integration Server and the backend applications can be achieved
without adapters.
Which message protocol should you use for this communication type?
A. RFC-XML
B. PI-SOAP Protocol
C. File
D. JDBC 2.0
Answer: B

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NO.7 To react to situations where it is not possible or not advisable to continue a process in the normal way,
you can define exceptions.
Which statements correctly describe the triggering of exceptions?
A. A synchronous or asynchronous Send step can trigger an exception when a system error occurs.
B. Every step type can trigger an exception when a permanent error occurs.
C. A Control step can trigger an exception.
D. A Transformation step can trigger an exception.
E. Exceptions can only be triggered by Control steps.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.8 If a system error occurs in a send step, an alert can be triggered for Alert Management and the
integration process should then be terminated.
Where do you define the Alert Category for the appropriate Control Step?
A. Within the SLD
B. Within the transaction ALRTCATDEF on the Integration Server
C. Within the Enterprise Services Builder
D. Within the Process Editor
Answer: B

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NO.9 A special aspect in B2B business processes is that the business partners involved in these processes
do not usually provide information about their internal system landscape.
Which configuration objects are relevant for B2B configuration?
A. Receiver Determination
B. Communication Party
C. Software Component Version (SWCV)
D. Communication Channel
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.10 Assume that your customer has a scenario in which a database table needs to be queried (i.e. to
perform a SELECT statement and obtain the result set).
What are the viable options for implementing this with the PI JDBC adapter?
A. Use the sender JDBC adapter to query the database asynchronously.
B. Use the sender JDBC adapter to query the database synchronously.
C. Use the receiver JDBC adapter to query the database synchronously.
D. Use the receiver JDBC adapter to query the database asynchronously.
Answer: A,C

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NO.11 You can create multiple configurations for one Integration Process without changing the appropriate
process definition.
Which of these parameters allows you to achieve this behavior?
A. Process Signature
B. Container Definition
C. Correlation
D. Configurable Parameters in Conditions
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which of these operations can be performed by a Container Operation step?
A. Incrementing a counter variable.
B. Appending a message to a multiline container element.
C. Removing a message from a multiline container element.
D. Setting the value of an XML element of a message.
Answer: A,B

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NO.13 You have implemented a scenario where IDocs are posted to an ERP system using the receiver IDoc
adapter.
Which statements correctly describe the receiver IDoc adapter of SAP NetWeaver PI?
A. IDoc packages are not supported, unless all IDocs are collected by BPM.
B. Specific fields in the IDoc control record can be overwritten using the 'header mapping' functionality in
the Receiver Agreement.
C. Quality of service EOIO (exactly once in order) is supported, provided that the target system is a SAP
Web AS 6.40 or above.
D. If the target system is SAP Web AS 6.20 or under, then the quality of service BE (best effort) and EO
(exactly once) can be used.
E. A receiver communication channel must be defined in the Integration Builder.
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.14 Which statements are correct when using the Receiver File adapter to process XML messages?
A. The messages are processed based on a poll cycle.
B. The adapter can convert the XML payload into a flat file.
C. The adapter can FTP the file to a remote directory.
D. The quality of service can be 'best effort' (BE) only.
Answer: B,C

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NO.15 Which Process Integration objects can be used in an integration process?
A. All objects displayed in the navigation area of the Integration Builder.
B. All objects within the software component version of the integration process.
C. Only the objects within the namespace of the integration process.
D. All objects displayed in the Process Integration Scenario using this process.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: C_TSCM62_64

Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Order Fulfillment with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP4)

Questions et réponses: 82 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following SAP NetWeaver components ensures company-wide unification of data and
information in heterogeneous IT environments?
A. Business Warehouse
B. Knowledge Management
C. Enterprise Portal
D. Master Data Management
Answer: D

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NO.2 During sales order processing, a user will be alerted when stock is not available for material entered in
the sales order if the availability check was carried out. In which of the following ways will the user be
alerted about this situation?
A. An error message will appear on the status bar alerting the user to the situation.
B. The schedule line will be marked and highlighted by the system.
C. The availability control screen will be displayed.
D. The incompletion log will display the unconfirmed schedule line as a missing field.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following is controlled by the configuration of the billing type?
A. How account determination should take place.
B. How the item category within the billing document will be determined.
C. If a billing plan will be determined when using this billing type.
D. If order related billing is supported when using this billing type.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following data elements represent standard split criteria in billing creation? Note: There
are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. Material group
B. Billing date
C. Terms of payment
D. Payer
E. Order reason
Answer: B,C,D

SAP   C_TSCM62_64   C_TSCM62_64

NO.5 Which of the following statements regarding the processing of the billing due list are correct? Note:
There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. The billing due list is used to process sales orders and deliveries that are due for billing.
B. The billing due list is used for the periodic creation of billing documents.
C. You can only use the billing due list to process documents due for billing on the same date.
D. Only the general billing interface can be used for processing the billing due list.
E. There are various selection criteria available for processing the billing due list, such as sold-to party,
sales organization and shipping point.
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.6 A customer is to be billed on the last day of the month, regardless of which day of the month the order
and delivery are processed. Which of the following procedures will fulfill this requirement?
A. Maintaining a customer-specific billing due list variant and scheduling a periodic job.
B. Maintaining a factory calendar with a single date per month and assigning it to the customer master
record of the payer.
C. Maintaining a billing date profile and assigning it to the sales document type.
D. Using the condition technique, assigning a billing date determination profile to the customer master
record of the payer.
Answer: B

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NO.7 The availability check (ATP) is carried out based on which of the following dates?
A. The material availability date
B. The transportation planning date
C. The goods issue date
D. The loading date
Answer: A

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NO.8 You want to restrict what materials a customer can order. What do you use to achieve this?
A. Material group
B. Assortment module
C. Material listing
D. Product hierarchy
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following Service Desk features provides all the functions to analyze and monitor an
entire SAP solution centrally?
A. root cause analysis
B. Implementation Roadmap
C. SAP Notes
D. SAP Solution Manager diagnostics
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following statements regarding material determination are correct? Note: There are 2
correct answers to this question.
A. Condition tables must be defined in Customizing (IMG).
B. The definition of the substitution reason determines whether a manual or an automatic substitution
process should be used.
C. The material determination procedure is assigned to a combination of sales areas, customer pricing
procedures, and document pricing procedures.
D. The relevant substitution reason is specified in the access sequence.
Answer: A,B

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NO.11 The entry for the assignment of the incompleteness procedures to the sales document types contains
the following information: Sales Type: OR Description: Standard Order Procedure: 11 Description: Sales
Order Field: IC-dialog is flagged. Which of the following conclusions can you draw from this entry?
A. Incomplete standard orders must be released in a dialog for further process steps.
B. Procedure 11 specifies which fields in standard orders (header data) are checked for completeness
and order type OR cannot be saved if any of the fields are incomplete.
C. Incomplete standard orders can be saved after a warning message (dialog) appears.
D. Incomplete standard orders can be saved.
Answer: B

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NO.12 In the system, it is possible to have zero stock available and still receive a confirmed schedule line in the
sales order. Which of the following states the reason for this confirmation.?
A. Stock will be taken from another delivery at the shipping point.
B. The system automatically searches other plants for inventory and transfers this inventory to the plant
with zero inventory in the sales order.
C. The availability check that was carried out included a replenishment lead time in the scope of check.
D. A stock transfer will be created by inventory management when you save the sales order.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of the following statements regarding the free goods process is correct?
A. Free goods with exclusive bonus quantity will always create a subitem.
B. Free goods with inclusive bonus quantity will always take place without a subitem being generated.
C. The free goods calculation rule only allows for whole unit free goods bonus increments.
D. Free goods with exclusive bonus quantity must contain the same material for the ordered goods and
the free goods.
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which of the following SAP NetWeaver components realizes cross-system application processes?
A. SAP Exchange Infrastructure (SAP XI) / SAP Process Integration (SAP PI)
B. SAP Master Data Management (SAP MDM)
C. SAP Enterprise Portal (SAP EP)
D. SAP Business Warehouse (SAP BW)
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of the following elements can directly influence whether an availability check will be performed?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. The schedule line category in the sales document
B. The item category in the delivery document
C. The check group in the material master
D. The item category in the sales document
E. The sales document type
Answer: A,B,C

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Code d'Examen: C-TERP10-60

Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Business Associate with SAP ERP 6.0)

Questions et réponses: 100 Q&As

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NO.1 A GR is used for goods received from which of the following scenarios:
(Chooseall that apply)
A. External procurement from a vendor
B. Stock transfer
C. Transfer posting
D. From a production order
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 What of the following determines the views available when creating a material master? (Choose the
correct answer)
A. Info type
B. Item category
C. Material type
D. Movement type
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following describe data and transactions in the SAP system?
(Choose all that apply)
A. A document is created for each transaction carried out in the system
B. Transaction codes determine the relevant master data
C. Master data ensure the redundancy of data in the system
D. Applicable organizational elements must be assigned for each transaction
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 Goods receipt into stock in quality inspection can be preplanned in which of thefollowing. (Choose all
that apply)
A. In the Material master
B. On the GR
C. On the PO
D. On the Vendor Info record
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 Which of the following are available in LIS? (Choose all that apply)
A. SIS
B. PURCHIS
C. TIS
D. PMIS
E. INVCO
Answer: A,B,C,D,E

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NO.6 The information integration component of NetWeaver include which of thefollowing (pick one):
A. SAP EP
B. SAP BI
C. SAP XI
D. Microsoft.Net
E. SAP PLM
Answer: B

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NO.7 The subareas of People Integration in NetWeaver include (choose all that apply):
A. Integration broker
B. Collaboration
C. Portal infrastructure
D. Multi-channel access
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.8 Which of the following are item categories for a BOM. (Choose all that apply)
A. Stock item
B. Class item
C. Variable-size item
D. Inventory item
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.9 Enterprise Services Architecture (ESA) enables business innovation by (chooseall that apply):
A. Leveraging existing IT assets
B. Reducing total cost of ownership
C. Increasing time to implementation
D. Maximizing agility
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.10 In material planning, the MRP views and the Warehouse Management views mustbe
created.(True/False)
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.11 The basis functions in SAP are provided by (choose the correct answer):
A. SAP XI
B. SAP EP
C. SAP Web AS
D. SAP BI
Answer: C

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NO.12 A purchasing group (choose all that apply):
A. Is assigned to a purchasing organization
B. Represent a individual or group of buyers
C. Are responsible for certain purchasing activities
D. Are assigned in the material master data
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.13 Material master records must be maintained for consumable materials.(True/False)
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which of the following are Account Assignment categories for consumablematerials?
(Chooseall that apply)
A. COGS
B. Cost center
C. Project
D. Profit Center
E. Asset
F. Sales order
Answer: B,C,D,E,F

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NO.15 MySAP Business Suite includes.?(choose all that apply):
A. MySAP ERP
B. MySCM
C. MyCRM
D. Netweaver
E. MySAP SRM
Answer: A,B,C,D,E

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Code d'Examen: C-TB1200-88

Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - SAP Business One 8.8)

Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 Your client has asked for a report on service contract history. What is the easiest way to
identify
the correct fields needed in the report?
A. With a service contract in the active window, open the Query Wizard. It will automatically
showthe table and field names for the active window.
B. Open a service contract document and right-mouse click on a field to see the table and field
name.
C. Reference the DI-API online help the see the table and field names for the service contract
object.
D. Open a service contract and toggle the System Information view to see the table and field
names at the bottom of the screen.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Mike from Miller Inc. created a forecast showing a need for 100 staplers by June 1. Currently
thereare 10 staplers in inventory. Existing sales orders have a committed quantity of 50
staplers.When Mike runs MRP to produce a production order to manufacture staplers, the
recommendedproduction order is for 90 staplers. Why does MRP recommend this amount?
A. The maximum stock requirement is set to 90.
B. MRP never considers sales orders as demand.
C. The minimum stock requirement is set to 10.
D. The planning definitions are set to consume forecasts.
Answer: D

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NO.3 SG Products will go live tomorrow. The A/R and A/P balances need to be transferred from
the
legacy system. How should the implementation consultant proceed to ensure that the A/R and
A/P
control accounts are correct and up to date in the new system?
A. Import all open sales and purchase orders from the legacy system. The control accounts will
then be correct.
B. Copy the balances from both the Profit and Loss and the Balance Sheet legacy accounts so
that the control accounts are correct.
C. Copy the A/P and A/R account balances from the legacy Balance Sheet. The control accounts
will then be correct.
D. Import the open invoice balances for each individual business partner. The control accounts
will
then be correct.
Answer: D

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NO.4 During Business Blueprint, the customer indicated they want to run perpetual inventory with
moving average valuation method. They went into production a week ago and they now
wantsome existing products to use standard cost valuation instead. How can this be
accomplished?
A. The moving average valuation method is only a default, and can be changed to standard cost
for an item at any time.
B. Once an item has been imported into SAP Business One, the valuation method is fixed and the
items must be deleted and re-imported to change the method.
C. As long as there are no open transactions and there is no inventory for the item, they can
change the valuation method.
D. They can move the items to an item group with the standard cost valuation method. This
automatically changes the valuation method.
Answer: C

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NO.5 When Jade Logistics creates a sales order, they want to see the description for the item so
they
can communicate this to the customer. How can this requirement be met?
A. In the sales order, right-mouse click in the item code field to see the item description.
B. This information is standard in the sales order and you can make it visible in the sales order
row using form settings.
C. Once an item is selected for the sales order, the description and other item specifications are
automatically provided in the Logistics tab of the order.
D. Add a user-defined field in the item row to display the description for the item.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Top Toys defined their sub-periods as months. How often should they run the period-end
closing
utility?
A. They are required to run the period-end closing utility both at the end of each month and at
theend of the fiscal year.
B. Depending on their financial processes, they should run the period-end closing utility at the
endof the fiscal year and also can run it at the end of each month.
C. Depending on their financial processes, they can run the period-end closing utility at the end
ofeach month and also at the end of each quarter.
D. Because they defined their sub-periods as months, the system requires them to run the
periodendclosing utility at the end of each month.
Answer: B

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NO.7 What happens when a default payment method for customers is changed in the General
Settings?
A. Any new customer master records will default to this payment method, but existing records
will
not change.
B. New and existing customer master records will automatically receive this payment method.
C. When a new customer master record is created, a pop up box will appear with a choice of
available payment methods listed in General Settings.
D. When a new customer master record is created, the default payment method is assigned and
cannot be changed.
Answer: A

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NO.8 The customer successfully went live last week. What is the best method for the
implementation
consultant to maintain the continuous reliability of the customer system?
A. Install the Service Manager
B. Create a Service Level Agreement
C. Activate the services of the remote support platform for SAP Business One
D. Upgrade the customer system to the latest patch level
Answer: C

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NO.9 The sales manager wants to be informed when a sales employee issues an order that would
produce a gross profit less than 25%. However, he does not want the sales process to be blocked.
What is the easiest way to implement this?
A. Use an alert with a predefined condition for gross profit deviation.
B. Schedule the Sales Analysis report to run when the gross profit is below the threshold.
C. Add a user-defined field to the sales order document, with a query to report when the gross
profit is less than 25%.
D. Use an approval procedure with a predefined condition for gross profit deviation.
Answer: A

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NO.10 The client wants to continue the numbering of invoices from the legacy system, so that
there are
no gaps in the numbering. Additionally, sales quotations are issued by multiple employees, and
the numbering of sales quotations should continue for each employee. How can both these
requirements be implemented in SAP Business One?
A. In each user account, set the first and last document numbers for each document type.
B. Set the first invoice number using the document numbering function. In the same function
create multiple numbering series for sales quotations.
C. Set the first number for each type of document using the document numbering function.
D. Using the document settings function, set one document numbering range for invoices, and
multiple ranges for sales quotation documents.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: P-ADM-SEC-70

Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Technology Professional - Security with SAP NetWeaver 7.0)

Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following is not a fundamental part of a Regulatory Security Policy?
A. Why is it being done?
B. What is to be done?
C. When it is to be done?
D. Who is supposed to do it?
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following statements regarding load balancers are true?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. With a reverse proxy, you can route incoming requests to different services based on the
URL path.
B. The SAP Web Dispatcher is a full-fledged reverse proxy.
C. The SAP Web Dispatcher uses SAP Logon Groups in Enterprise Portal scenarios.
D. You can administer the SAP Web Dispatcher using transaction: WEBDISP.
E. You can combine the SAP Web Dispatcher and web switches in the demilitarized zone
(DMZ).
Answer: A,E

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NO.3 After the installation of SAP Web Dispatcher you want to create additional users to
administer SAP
Web Dispatcher. Where are these users stored?
A. In the table USR02 in AS ABAP.
B. In the local database of SAP Web Dispatcher.
C. In the filesystem.
D. In the table WEBDISP_USER in AS Java.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following statements regarding SSO and SAP Logon Tickets are true?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. Users have the same user ID and password in all of the systems they access using SAP
Logon
Tickets.
B. The end users' Web browsers accept cookies (SAP GUI not in use).
C. The clocks for the accepting systems are synchronized with the ticket-issuing system.
D. The SSO ticket is issued after successful login to the SAP NetWeaver AS Java.
E. The cookie is stored in the temporary folder of the local GUI.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.5 When you use the Central User Administration (CUA), when will your changes to user
data become
effective in the child systems? Please also consider the options that the Application Link
Enabling
technology (ALE) offers.
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. Changes are replicated immediately.
B. The changes can be replicated by the background job "CUA_Distribute" in the central
system.
C. The IDocs that transport the changes to the user master data in the child systems can be
collected and
transferred at a later time, triggered by a background job.
D. The changes can be replicated by selecting the button "Distribute all data" in transaction
SCUA.
E. The data for CUA will be replicated to the child systems every 60 minutes if no other
setting/configuration overrides this default value.
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 Which of the following considerations are important if a customer plans to use the
Internet Connection
Manager (ICM) in SAP NetWeaver AS 7.0, together with Microsoft Internet Explorer? Note:
There are 2
correct answers to this question.
A. The use of the TCP/IP ports must be agreed with the security/network department.
B. The location of the SAP NetWeaver AS 7.0 within the network topology must be agreed
with the
network department.
C. The SAP Gateway Port 3300 must be taken into consideration for the ICM.
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 A customer uses an LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol ) enabled directory
server. To simplify
the administration of SAP users, Central User Administration (CUA) was introduced. Now
there are plans
to synchronize the LDAP enabled directory server with the CUA. Which of the following
statements are
true?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. The SAP user field: BNAME is already a standard for most of the LDAP enabled directory
server.
Therefore the field mappings can be easily customized.
B. The synchronization of fields can be controlled via a mapping transaction in SAP ABAP.
C. A prerequisite for the communication between the CUA and the LDAP enabled directory
server is to
open the LDAP(s) port in the firewall environment, if a firewall is used.
D. The communication between LDAP and the CUA is based on PI 7.1. Therefore, SAP
specific PI
adapter ports must be open in the firewall environment.
E. A SAPROUTER must be used to establish the proper connection between the SAP CUA
and the LDAP
provider.
Answer: B,C

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NO.8 Which of the following authentication mechanisms is not accepted by SAP NetWeaver
Portal 7.0?
A. SAML Assertions
B. User ID / password
C. X.509 client certificates
D. SNC based authentication
E. Web Access Management (WAM) products
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following statements regarding the SAP Security Optimization Service are
true?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. It is a local service offered by the SAP Solution Manager.
B. The service can be performed at any time.
C. All checks are automated for the service.
D. The service focuses on internal and external system security.
Answer: B,D

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NO.10 Which of the following is a characteristic of the Segregation of Duties (SOD) principle?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. The SOD principle is a preventive control.
B. The SOD principle is a detective control.
C. Enforcing the SOD principle means that no single individual can carry out a critical task
that could
prove to be corruptive to the company.
D. Enforcing the SOD principle means that individuals are capable of performing the tasks for
different
roles, rather than depending on just one individual.
Answer: A,C

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NO.11 Which of the following statements regarding regulations is false?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. SOX (Sarbanes-Oxley Act) is a binding regulation for companies traded at the US stock
market.
B. ITIL (IT Infrastructure Library) represents a universally applicable framework for optimum
handling of
processes in IT management.
C. The focus of CobiT (Control Objectives for Information and Related Technology) is on
auditors, not on
IT management and IT end users.
Answer: A,B

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NO.12 Which areas in the SAP environment does the SAP Security Optimization Self Service
check?
A. SAPouttab (SAPRouter)
B. WGate and AGate configuration (SAP ITS)
C. SSL check for the SAP J2EE Engine
D. Customized settings in the NW AS ABAP environment
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of the following authentication mechanisms are available for SAP NetWeaver AS
Java.?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. Security session IDs for Single Sign-On between applications
B. SAP Logon Tickets for Single Sign-On
C. SAML Assertions for Single Sign-On
D. Web Dynpro for Single Sign-On
E. Kerberos Authentication for Single Sign-On
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.14 When is it acceptable not to take action on an identified risk?
A. Never. Good security has to address and reduce all risks.
B. When political issues prevent this type of risk from being addressed.
C. When the necessary countermeasure is too complex.
D. When the cost of the countermeasure outweighs the value of the asset and the potential
loss.
Answer: D

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NO.15 The SAP Web dispatcher gets information about the application servers and groups
required for load
distribution from the message server and application servers. HTTP is used for this
communication.
You want to change this communication to HTTPS.
Which of the following statements are true?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. The SAP Web Dispatcher must be set up for Secure Socket Layer (SSL).
B. The message server must be set up for Secure Socket Layer (SSL).
C. The internal group: !DIAGS must be empty.
D. The SAP Web Dispatcher must be able to accept the server certificates from the message
server.
Answer: A,B,D

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