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Code d'Examen: M2020-615
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Business Analytics Performance Management Sales Mastery Test v2)
Questions et réponses: 47 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following buyer roles is typically not seen in the SPM sales cycle?
A. Finance
B. IT
C. Marketing
D. HR
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of following statements is TRUE regarding the benefits of IBM's Business Analytics SPM
solutions for management and sales executives?
A. Scenario modeling helps determine appropriate plan changes resulting in better decision making
B. Input forms and Presenter allow quick changes to data and reports.
C. Visibility into details viewed by direct reports helps resolve inquiries faster.
D. Process Lists keep common tasks organized and ensure nothing is missed.
Answer: A

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NO.3 A customer is concerned that the organization expends a lot of effort preparing narrative
reports which leaves little-to-no time to perform analysis and improve performance of the
organization.
What aspects of IBM's Enterprise Disclosure Management solutions will primarily meet the needs of
this customer?
A. Structure & automate low value, manual and error prone processes
B. Scale to large user communities and data sets
C. Integrate disparate data sources
D. Applies security and access controls
Answer: A

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Reference:ftp://ftp.software.ibm.com/software//lost+found/ 3754151

NO.4 Which of the following characteristics positions IBM's Enterprise Disclosure Management
solution when electronic filing is a key requirement?
A. Timely, accurate delivery of performance reports and narrative analysis to internal and external
stakeholders.
B. Standardize and automate manual processes
C. Speeds and simplifies creation of reports that require use of XBRL - i.e. extensible business
reporting language
D. Reduces the risk of errors inherent in spreadsheet-based processes and activities
Answer: A

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Reference:http://www.newcomp.com/EN/solutions/EnterpriseDisclosureManagement.cfm

NO.5 In addition to Incentive Compensation Management and Territory Management, which
activities can be accomplished with IBM's Business Analytics SPM Solutions?
A. A Channel Management and Quota Planning
B. Customer Relationship Management and Channel Management
C. Sales Forecasting and Quota Planning
D. Customer Relationship Management and Sales Forecasting
Answer: A

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Reference:http://public.dhe.ibm.com/partnerworld/pub/swg/Varicent_Post_Close_Referenc
e_Summary_July_2012.pdf

NO.6 A sales representative has just secured a meeting with a manager in the CFO's office. What
tactic should they avoid for this initial meeting?
A. Be credible.
B. Be a strategic resource.
C. Focus on the customer.
D. Focus on the sale.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which aspect of IBM's Business Analytics FPM solutions is most likely to appeal to a CIO or IT
director?
A. Leverage existing ERP investments with proven solutions
B. Keep the look and feel of Excel, but in an automated driver-based model
C. Avert surprises from financial and operational performance
D. Gain early insights to enable redirection relative to corporate goals
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which statement is TRUE about integration between IBM Business Analytics Performance
Management solutions and ERP platforms?
A. Vendor consolidation leads to better integration.
B. BI and PM solutions offered by ERP vendors support all ERP environments equally.
C. IBM Cognos PM products work well with any ERP environment
D. Using the same vendor for PM and ERP process results in a lower total cost of ownership.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: HC-621
Nom d'Examen: Huawei (HCNP-SSAM(SAN Storage Advanced Management))
Questions et réponses: 296 Q&As

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NO.1 If the LUN on the storage array to create a virtual snapshot of the data in case the source LUN
is not to remove, what methods can be used to recover the data? (Choose two)
A. Source LUN snapshot rollback operation
B. The snapshot of the source LUN LUN mapping to the host,the host side to recover
C. Source LUN snapshot activate operation activation
D. The snapshot source LUN mirroring operation
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 For solaris systems, the following statement is correct about the STMS. (Choose three)
A. solaris10 system comes stms package,no additional installation
B. Will require the use of a command function is enabled stms restart the host port
C. stmsboot managing multi- path characteristics solaris management program
D. Ultrapath can be installed on solaris multipath software to support multi -pathing
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.3 Installing the AIX platform, multi- path, multi- path need to see the priority attribute, you can
use the which command?
A. cfgmgr
B. upadm show path
C. lspv
D. lspath
Answer: D

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NO.4 Remote replication between storage arrays are based on file-level replication.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.5 ISM integrated storage management software for management of the storage array uses
in-band management.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.6 S5000 full amount LUN copy must interrupt the host for the S5000 source LUN data read and
write operations.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.7 Storage system configuration (DB) class of problems can usually be prevented by routine
maintenance, which can issue the following measures after the system cannot be restored DB
exception occurs prevention? (Choose two)
A. After completing the system configuration,we recommend a backup DB, to prepare for the
resumption of the system configuration anomalies
B. Safe hard drive failure timely treatment recommendations
C. After the lapse in time RAID group
D. Log preservation and archiving
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 For common maintenance tool storage array, the error is described below.
A. Information gathering tool with a graphical interface operation,cross- operating
system,multilanguage switching,free installation features
B. Upgrade Checker.a check items automatically determine and reduce risk, lower skill requirements
characteristics
C. Business management functions can be achieved visually displays the current connection status
topology
D. DHA Service management is a hard disk health data collection / performance data storage,
support for start and stop, set,export, return
Answer: C

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NO.9 Snapshot of the storage array, LUN copy and remote replication, the following statement is
correct. (Choose two)
A. You can do both on a LUN snapshot and replication do
B. A remote copy of the source LUN can be used as another remote replication target LUN
C. A remote copy can be used as another source LUN LUN LUN copy source
D. Cannotdo both on a LUN snapshot and do remote replication
Answer: A,C

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NO.10 With the same specifications, the number of hard drives in the RAID group established in
reading and writing in the same business, Raid10 random write performance and Raid5 random
write performance is roughly equal.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: HP0-P16
Nom d'Examen: HP (Planning and Design of HP 9000/HP Integrity Server Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 145 Q&As

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NO.1 A customer is hesitant to invest in HP Integrity servers because an IBM representative told him
that the Itanium 2 processor will go out of production due to low independent software vendor
(ISV) support. Which responses are correct for this concern? (Select two.)
A.More than 7000 ISVs are developing software for the Itanium 2 processor and the number is growing.
B.HP Integrity Virtual Machine will enable the customer to run any x86 application without performance
loss.
C.The roadmap for HP Integrity servers indicates that future processor developments will be included in
the customer's business plans.
D.Even though there are only 7000 ISVs developing software to run on Itanium 2 processors, they cover
every needed type of application.
Correct:A C

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NO.2 What differentiates HP Integrity servers from other vendors' Itanium-based systems?
A.chipsets
B.full redundancy
C.faster clock speeds
D.memory expandability
Correct:A

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NO.3 Your task is to prepare a document that focuses on the competitive positioning of HP Integrity
servers against other vendors for Linux. Which competitive concept should be included in your
document?
A.HP delivers proprietary technology and complete solutions for Linux.
B.HP delivers industry-standard platforms and limited solutions for Linux.
C.HP delivers industry-standard platforms and complete solutions for Linux.
D.HP delivers proprietary technology that results in lower total cost of ownership (TCO).
Correct:C

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NO.4 What differentiates the HP Integrity platform from the IBM pSeries?
A.HP Integrity does not run Linux.
B.IBM pSeries does not run Linux.
C.HP Integrity does not run Windows.
D.IBM pSeries does not run Windows.
Correct:D

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NO.5 Your customer performs a network-based backup of HP-UX servers over a Gigabit Ethernet LAN
to save their data to a library. Which technology will improve performance?
A.NIC bonding
B.NIC teaming
C.Auto Port Aggregation (APA)
D.Advanced Technology Attachment
Correct:C

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NO.6 HP offers Advanced Memory Protection in the zx2 and sx2000 based servers. Which option
enables this benefit?
A.Double-chip sparing
B.DDR2 memory
C.Scalable Memory Extenders
D.Memory scrubbers
Correct:A

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NO.7 Considering the advantages of using HP Integrity servers for online transaction processing
(OLTP) environments, what type of business would benefit the most from using this hardware
platform?
A.a data warehouse
B.a bank with automatic teller machines
C.an architectural firm with a large database of digital drawings
D.a library that maintains a catalog of historic records for online viewing
Correct:B

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NO.8 Which feature allows an HP Integrity platform with HP Virtual Server Environment (VSE) to
remain operational if a processor chip fails?
A.iCAP
B.OLAR
C.hot plug processors
D.dynamic processor deallocation
Correct:D

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NO.9 What new feature is enabled by the zx2 chipset, as compared to the zx1 chipset?
A.PCI-X 1.0
B.SDRAM
C.chip spare
D.PCI Express
Correct:D

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NO.10 Your customer wants to upgrade their IT environment. What must you do when gathering
information about the customer's existing infrastructure?
A.Identify existing contracts and validate them with the contract administration group.
B.Identify the existing management and administration model and validate the customer's market position.
C.Identify the existing server and storage environment for hardware revision levels and update to the
latest version.
D.Identify the existing server, storage, application, management, administration, contracts, system, and
site diagrams.
Correct:D

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NO.11 By what factor is the I/O bandwidth of the zx2 chipset increased compared to the zx1 chipset?
A.1.0
B.1.2
C.2.0
D.2.5
Correct:C

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NO.12 When talking to your client about migrating to HP Integrity rx8640 servers, what benefits should
you discuss? (Select two.)
A.HP Integrity partitions can be physical and virtual.
B.Integrity servers use 64-bit processor technology.
C.PA-RISC and Itanium cell boards can be mixed in the same complex.
D.The HP Integrity rx8640 server supports up to eight cell boards in the server.
E.Cell boards with different processor speeds can be mixed in the same partition.
Correct:A B

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NO.13 Which advantages of HP Integrity servers can you propose to a potential customer running IBM
POWER4 servers? (Select two.)
A.IBM supports only Linux operating systems.
B.HP is the only vendor that provides partitioning technology.
C.HP Integrity servers can mix processor types on a cell board.
D.A hardware swap is required to migrate from IBM POWER4 to POWER5.
E.HP Integrity offers a better price-to-performance ratio based on SAP SD benchmark data.
Correct:D E

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NO.14 What is an advantage of Itanium-based processors over PA-RISC-based processors?
A.They provide higher reliability and availability.
B.They provide mission-critical application support.
C.They support different operating systems and applications.
D.They provide more than 4GB available memory per application.
Correct:C

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NO.15 How many logical processors are provided in an HP Integrity rx6600 server that has four
dual-core Itanium 2 processors with HyperThreading enabled?
A.4
B.8
C.16
D.32
Correct:C

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NO.16 Which new features are available on the zx2 chipset, as compared to the zx1 chipset? (Select
two.)
A.SDRAM
B.chip spare
C.double chip spare
D.up to 512GB main memory
E.up to 768GB main memory
Correct:C E

HP examen   HP0-P16   HP0-P16   certification HP0-P16   HP0-P16

NO.17 When using the HP Performance Quick Reference Tool (PQRT) to find a corresponding server
for a competitive offer, which numeric fields do you compare?
A.TPC-B
B.number of CPUs
C.delta performance
D.estimated performance
Correct:D

HP examen   HP0-P16   HP0-P16   certification HP0-P16   HP0-P16

NO.18 What are advantages of HP partitioning over IBM LPAR partitioning? (Select two.)
A.HP offers two kinds partitions: nPar and vPar.
B.HP vPar partitions offer full electrical isolation.
C.HP nPar partitions offer full electrical isolation.
D.HP partitions offer the same functionality as IBM LPARS.
E.HP nPars enable dynamic processor reallocation to another nPar.
Correct:A C

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NO.19 What is the primary advantage of using roadmaps when discussing HP solutions with your
customers? (Select two.)
A.Roadmaps show information about product reliability.
B.Roadmaps provide information about technical product specifications.
C.Roadmaps show the customer which direction HP is going.
D.Roadmaps create a shared understanding of the future of the business.
Correct:C D

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NO.20 What are the components of a cell board in an Integrity mid-range server?
A.up to four hard drives
B.up to 64 memory DIMMs
C.up to two PCI I/O card cages
D.up to four multi-core processor chips
Correct:D

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Code d'Examen: HP0-S13
Nom d'Examen: HP ( HP BladeSystem Class Solutions I)
Questions et réponses: 151 Q&As

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NO.1 Which statements describe the function of the Onboard Administrator? (Select two.)
A. It enables automated provisioning of the HP BladeSystem c-Class server blades.
B. It provides I2C and ICMB management interfaces to all HP BladeSystem c-Class components.
C. It consolidates 16 iLO 2 ports in the c7000 enclosure and 8 iLO 2 ports in the c3000 enclosure.
D. It creates a LAN-based or SAN-based abstraction layer between the server blades and the external
LAN/SAN.
Answer: BC

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NO.2 How can the Onboard Administrator show a health status different from the status displayed by HP
Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM)? (Select two.)
A. The passive Onboard Administrator might have been activated through the user interface without
notifying HP SIM.
B. The active Onboard Administrator status does not include information from the agents running on the
server blades.
C. The active Onboard Administrator might indicate a failure that HP SIM displays in the event log rather
than in the health status.
D. The passive Onboard Administrator does not send a trap to HP SIM indicating a change of state when
it activates after a failure.
E. Because of an Integrated Lights-Out (iLO) configuration error, iLO might have indicated different health
states to the Onboard Administrator and to HP SIM.
Answer: BC

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NO.3 What are the features of the HP Customer Self-Repair program? (Select three.)
A. HP ships the replacement part directly to the customer.
B. The customer is responsible for replacing the faulty part.
C. HP ships the replacement part to an authorized partner closest to the customer.
D. The customer diagnoses the issue and determines whether a replacement part is required.
E. The program is available for HP products that are under warranty but not covered by a service
contract.
F. An HP support specialist diagnoses the problem and determines whether a replacement part is
necessary.
Answer: ABF

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NO.4 To utilize all four Ethernet ports on the NC325m PCIe Quad-Port 1Gb Server Adapter, which
mezzanine position must you avoid?
A. mezzanine position 1 in full-height server blades
B. mezzanine position 2 in full-height server blades
C. mezzanine position 3 in full-height server blades
D. mezzanine position 1 in half-height server blades
E. mezzanine position 2 in half-height server blades
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which statements are true regarding the BladeSystem? (Select two.)
A. BladeSystem c-Class and p-Class server blades will not ship until 2009.
B. The c-Class interconnects are compatible with the p-Class interconnects at a management interface
level.
C. c-Class server blades can be installed in a p-Class enclosure with an enclosure upgrade kit.
D. p-Class and c-Class server blades are compatible with industry-standard Web Based Enterprise
Management (WBEM).
E. The Onboard Administrator can manage both p-Class and c-Class enclosures.
Answer: BD

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NO.6 From which sources can you configure individual iLO management processors? (Select three.)
A. from an FTP server
B. through a scripted setup
C. from the HP Management CDROM
D. through virtual Keyboard/Video/Monitor (KVM)
E. remotely through a browser-based Web interface
F. locally using the ROM-Based Setup Utility (RBSU)
Answer: BEF

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NO.7 Which statement correctly describes Insight Control Data Center Edition (ICDCE)?
A. all-in-one Linux-hosted blade management and deployment software package
B. integrated suite of software that simplifies the provisioning, management, and recovery of
BladeSystem infrastructures
C. HP SIM 5.1 plug-in that adds remote monitoring and warranty, HP Care Pack, and contract entitlement
features to HP SIM
D. server deployment solution that facilitates the installation, configuration, and deployment of
high-volumes of servers through either a GUI-based or a Web-based console, using either scripting or
imaging technology
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which statements are true when using the HP StorageWorks SB40c storage blade for c-Class?
(Select three.)
A. Each SB40c storage blade can partner with only one server blade.
B. A c7000 enclosure can have a maximum of eight SB40c storage blades.
C. The SB40c storage blade supports Serial Attached SCSI (SAS) drives only.
D. A full-height storage blade can connect to a maximum of two SB40c storage blades.
E. Each SB40c storage blade requires an HP PCI Express Mezzanine Pass-Thru card to be installed in
mezzanine slot 3 of the full-height storage blade.
F. If connecting both the SB40c storage blade and the Ultrium 448c tape blade to the same full-height
server blade, the SB40c storage blade must be installed in the top bay.
Answer: ABE

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NO.9 Which types of drives are supported by the HP BladeSystem c-Class storage blades? (Select two.)
A. SCSI
B. Serial ATA (SATA)
C. Parallel ATA (PATA)
D. Serial Attached SCSI (SAS)
E. Fibre Attached Technology Adapted (FATA)
Answer: BD

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NO.10 Which statements describe how the Integrated Lights-Out (iLO) management processor receives its
power in the HP BladeSystem c-Class enclosure? (Select two.)
A. iLO receives its power through a connection to the server.
B. iLO receives its power through an independent connection.
C. iLO can be activated through Virtual Power from a remote server.
D. iLO receives redundant power in the event of a power supply failure.
E. iLO can be activated even if the server is not connected to a power source.
Answer: BD

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NO.11 Click the Exhibit button.
In a four-fan configuration, where must these fans be installed?
A. bays 1, 2, 3, and 4
B. bays 1, 2, 3, and 5
C. bays 2, 4, 5, and 6
D. bays 3, 4, 5, and 6
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which HP software is included with Insight Control Data Center Edition (ICDCE) and can be installed
as an option in the ICDCE installation but must be licensed separately? (Select two.)
A. Server Migration Pack (SMP)
B. Remote Support Pack (RSP)
C. Virtual Machine Management (VMM) Pack
D. Vulnerability and Patch Management (VPM) Pack
Answer: AC

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NO.13 Which statements correctly describe the integrated management functionality of HP SIM and HP
BladeSystem c-Class environments? (Select three.)
A. The redundant Onboard Administrator module cannot automatically take over control of the enclosure
until the primary Onboard Administrator module fails.
B. For added security, you must specify your user name and password when accessing the server blade
iLOs from the Onboard Administrator GUI.
C. The Onboard Administrator includes status information from the server blade agents and therefore
displays the same server blade status in its GUI as HP SIM.
D. HP SIM reports the Onboard Administrator modules, server blades, and server blade iLOs separately
because each has its own IP address and its own instrumentation.
E. Both the primary and redundant Onboard Administrator modules share the same IP address, thereby
enabling transparent failover for HP SIM and other management clients.
F. You can change which Onboard Administrator module is active and which is standby by logging in to
the standby Onboard Administrator module user interface and changing its setting.
Answer: ADF

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NO.14 Which HP BladeSystem c-Class components are covered by the HP 3-year parts, 3-year labor, and
3-year on-site limited global warranty? (Select three.)
A. server blades
B. c7000 enclosures
C. c3000 enclosures
D. SAS and SATA disk drives
E. Ethernet and SAN interconnect switches
F. Ethernet and Fibre Channel Pass-Thru modules
Answer: ABC

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NO.15 How will the HP BladeSystem c-Class enclosures indicate if a server blade is not installed in the correct
device bay?
A. The HP BladeSystem Insight Display will flash blue.
B. The interconnect will display errors when you configure it.
C. The Onboard Administrator will not allow the enclosure to power on.
D. The Onboard Administrator will not allow the interconnects to power on.
E. The Onboard Administrator will not allow the incorrectly placed server blade to power on.
Answer: E

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NO.16 Ten fans are installed in a fully populated c7000 enclosure and are configured as AC Redundant. All
server blades are powered on. What happens if one fan fails? (Select three.)
A. The fan subsystem health status remains OK.
B. The health LED of the failed fan illuminates red.
C. The health LED of the failed fan illuminates solid amber.
D. The fan subsystem health status changes to FAILED.
E. The fan subsystem health status changes to DEGRADED.
F. The Onboard Administrator increases the fan RPM to maximum.
G. The Onboard Administrator begins to shut down the least active server blades.
Answer: CEF

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NO.17 Which role-based Virtual Connect Manager access enables you to create, edit, and delete Virtual
Connect profiles?
A. Server
B. Admin
C. Storage
D. Domain
E. Networking
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which statements are true regarding the HP StorageWorks Ultrium 448c Tape Blade? (Select three.)
A. The tape blade provides direct-attach data protection for the adjacent server blade.
B. The tape blade provides network backup protection for all data within the enclosure.
C. The tape blade installs in a full-height device bay of either the c3000 or c7000 enclosure.
D. The tape blade installs in a half-height device bay of either the c3000 or c7000 enclosure.
E. The tape blade and the SB40c storage blade can both partner with the same full-height server blade.
F. The tape blade can partner with any of the HP BladeSystem c-Class ProLiant or Integrity server blades.
Answer: ABD

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NO.19 Which functions does the Onboard Administrator perform in the BladeSystem c-Class? (Select two.)
A. It manages connections to the interconnect modules.
B. It activates Remote Deployment Pack (RDP) when an in-service server fails.
C. It automates the process of deploying server operating systems and software.
D. It drives all management features through the Inter-Integrated Circuit (I2C) and Intelligent Chassis
Management Bus (ICMB) interfaces.
Answer: AD

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NO.20 You are configuring the MSA1000 storage solution to boot from a SAN. Although there are several
physical drives reported in the ACU graphical user interface, the Selective Storage Presentation (SSP)
link is missing. Why?
A. The ACU has detected multiple paths from the host.
B. The MSA1000 does not have any logical drives defined.
C. An incorrect MSA1000 device driver is loaded in the host server.
D. The host server is not running the HP Insight Agents, or these agents are outdated.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: HP0-Y11
Nom d'Examen: HP (ProCurve Security 7.31)
Questions et réponses: 132 Q&As

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NO.1 Which statements describing the 802.1X user authentication process are correct? (Select two.)
A. The supplicant and authentication server must support the same EAP method for the authentication
process to proceed.
B. A switch passes EAP messages between the supplicant and authentication switch without modification
or translation.
C. After a RADIUS server confirms a user is authenticated, the switch sends an EAP-Success message
and sets the port state to authorized.
D. Different RADIUS servers must be configured on the switch if authentication of both switch
management users and 802.1X supplicants will be performed.
E. If a supplicant receives an EAP-Request message specifying a particular EAP method to be supported,
the authentication session is closed if the supplicant does not support that EAP method.
Answer:AC

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NO.2 Which statements describing MAC authentication on ProCurve switches are correct? (Select two.)
A. It can be configured on the same port with Web authentication and 802.1X authentication.
B. The device's MAC address is sent to the RADIUS server as the user name and password.
C. The switch's built-in DHCP server initially assigns an IP address in the 192.168.0.0 private subnet.
D. The switch automatically initiates user authentication of a device when the device communicates on a
MAC authenticator port.
E. Configuration involves defining ports as MAC authenticators, the RADIUS authentication protocol to
use, and then activating the ports for MAC authentication operation.
Answer: BD

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NO.3 Network security can be described in terms of multiple layers of security. Which action describes a
perimeter security measure?
A. limiting switch access to SSH
B. deploying 802.1X authentication
C. installing an Intrusion Prevention System
D. using a secure operating system for network applications
Answer: C

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NO.4 A customer calls you and describes a switch management access problem involving SSH. The
customer indicates that he is denied access after supplying the login credentials. The customer is using a
RADIUS server for centralized authentication, and has used the ping command to verify that the SSH
client, switch, and RADIUS server are all reachable. What is a potential cause of this problem?
A. A self-signed digital certificate has not been installed on the switch.
B. SSH has not been configured for the login access level on the switch.
C. A remote-access policy on the RADIUS server has not been configured to support the CHAP protocol.
D. The digital certificate of the public Certificate Authority used by the switch has not been installed in the
SSH client.
Answer: C

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NO.5 You have ProCurve Identity Driven Manager currently deployed in your network and have recently
modified an Access Profile. Which task should you perform next?
A. Restart the IDM Agent.
B. Deploy the configuration.
C. Run the Secure Access Wizard.
D. Update the Access Policy Groups.
E. Start Active Directory synchronization.
F. Rediscover switches affected by the changes.
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is a capability of the Secure Access Wizard supported by ProCurve Identity Driven Manager?
A. It configures 802.1X authenticator ports and RADIUS server settings on a switch.
B. It verifies the integrity of the ProCurve Identity Driven Manager database using Active Directory.
C. It conceals all security-related credentials stored in the switch configuration before backing up the file.
D. It checks a switch configuration file's 802.1X, Web, or MAC authentication settings for consistency and
reports any
errors.
Answer:A

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NO.7 Which protocols are supported by a ProCurve switch for communication with a RADIUS server that is
used to authenticate 802.1X supplicants? (Select two.)
A. EAP-RADIUS
B. MD5-RADIUS
C. CHAP-RADIUS
D. PAP-SPAP-RADIUS
E. MS-CHAPv2-RADIUS
Answer:AC

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NO.8 Which statement describing Web authentication support on the ProCurve Switch 5400zl series is
correct?
A. User credentials or a digital certificate can authenticate the client.
B. It is mutually exclusive of other authentication methods on the same port.
C. After successful user authentication, a port is assigned to a VLAN based on an order of priority.
D. If a port is configured to support multiple users, different static untagged VLANs can be assigned
concurrently.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which EAP method is considered the least secure solution for implementing 802.1X user
authentication on a wireless LAN?
A. SIM
B. MD5
C. TTLS
D. FAST
E. LEAP
F. PEAP
Answer: B

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NO.10 A university shares a core routing switch between two departments. Each department has a separate
ProCurve edge switch deployed and neither department wants the other to have management access to
their respective switch. Which security measures can prevent management access by the respective
departments? (Select three.)
A. Enable the Privilege Mode option.
B. Configure Authorized IP Managers.
C. Define Secure Management VLANs.
D. Implement Command Authorization.
E. Use RADIUS authentication with separate policies.
Answer: BCE

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NO.11 You have just installed two ProCurve 5406zl switches, one on the second floor and one on the third
floor of your office. You are using 802.1X for port-access authentication. All users have an 802.1X
supplicant installed on their computers and you have configured a RADIUS server with a remote access
policy for each floor. Shortly after connecting the computers, users on the second floor report that they
cannot access any network resources. You can ping the RADIUS server from both switches, but when
you check the RADIUS log, you see authentication requests coming only from the third floor switch. Why
are the second floor users unable to connect to the network?
A. The IP address of the RADIUS server has not been configured on the second floor switch.
B. The second floor computers are using the wrong EAP type for authentication with the RADIUS server.
C. The shared secret configured on the second floor switch does not match the shared secret configured
on the RADIUS server.
D. No default gateway has been configured on the second floor switch, therefore no authentication
requests can reach the RADIUS server.
Answer:A

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NO.12 What is an operational difference between the TLS and MD5 EAP methods?
A. TLS uses a challenge/handshake mechanism for authentication; MD5 uses certificates for
authentication.
B. TLS uses a challenge/handshake mechanism for authentication and encryption; MD5 uses certificates
for authentication and encryption.
C. TLS uses digital certificates for mutual authentication; MD5 uses a challenge/handshake mechanism
to authenticate the client to the server.
D. TLS uses a name and password along with digital certificates to produce a session key; MD5 uses a
name and password to produce a session key.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which EAP methods support authentication of an 802.1X supplicant based on a user's name and
password? (Select two.)
A. SIM
B. TLS
C. TTLS
D. SPAP
E. PEAP
F. CHAP
Answer: CE

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NO.14 Which statement describing dynamic VLAN assignment for 802.1X authenticator ports on ProCurve
switches is correct?
A. If a GVRP-learned VLAN is used, the RADIUS server must specify that attribute.
B. The VLAN used may be statically defined on the switch or learned through GVRP.
C. If a client fails authentication, the port is reassigned to the Secure Management VLAN.
D. If a client is authenticated, but no VLAN attribute is returned by a RADIUS server, the switch blocks the
port.
Answer: B

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NO.15 You want to use 802.1X port-access authentication to assign Microsoft Active Directory users to a
particular VLAN
based on user credentials. Which condition must exist?
A. The VLAN ID must exist on the switch.
B. The VLAN ID must be defined in a GVRP configuration.
C. The port through which the user is authenticating must be defined as a member of the VLAN.
D. The user must be a member of an Active Directory Group that has an associated RADIUS remote-
access policy.
Answer:A

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NO.16 Authentication of switch management or general network users can involve multiple network
components. Which statement describing these network components is correct?
A. A user directory server operates as the policy enforcement point.
B. The authentication server is also known as the policy decision point.
C. A ProCurve switch functions as a policy repository for switch management access using a remote user
account.
D. A RADIUS access-accept message is used by a client to acknowledge authentication settings
assigned by the server.
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which statements describing the ProCurve switch debug facility are correct? (Select two.)
A. The instrumentation monitor must be enabled first.
B. Specific debug message categories can be selectively enabled.
C. The debug destinations can be set to a session window and a Syslog server concurrently.
D. Debug messages have the same format as standard Event Log messages including the event type
and timestamp.
Answer: BC

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NO.18 Which statements describing Web authentication support on ProCurve switches are correct? (Select
two.)
A. An SSL-based login is required.
B. It can be configured on ports that also have MAC authentication assigned.
C. A successfully authenticated user can be redirected to a configurable URL.
D. The switch's built-in DHCP, ARP, and DNS services assist with Web authentication while a port is in
the authenticating state.
E. When a client connects to a Web authenticator port and a Web browser is opened, the Web browser is
automatically redirected to the switch's Web-Auth home page.
Answer: CD

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NO.19 Which two EAP methods support tunneling of a weaker authentication method such as MS-CHAPv2?
A. TLS and SIM
B. PAP and SPAP
C. LEAP and FAST
D. PEAP and TTLS
Answer: D

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NO.20 Click the Exhibit button.
The RADIUS server and switch are correctly configured. The switch has the VLAN assignments and
port-access
commands configured, as shown in the diagram.
What happens to port 10 after the user connects to the network?
A. remains in an unauthorized state
B. becomes a member of VLAN 20
C. becomes a member of VLAN 25
D. becomes a member of VLAN 200
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: HP0-662
Nom d'Examen: HP (NonStop Configuration and Planning)
Questions et réponses: 138 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the filename of the SCSI boot code for the G06.08 release?
A. I1000
B. IBOOT
C. I2000
D. ISCSI
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is a key difference between TSM low-level link and TSM service connection?
A. service connection communicates only with the MSP
B. service connection shows external devices
C. service connection allows firmware updates
D. service connection allows system discovery
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which Windows NT services are required when configuring dial-out on TSM? Select TWO.
A. RPC
B. RAS
C. SAP Agent
D. Network Monitor Agent
E. SNMP
Answer: BE

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NO.4 In which volume and subvolume do the hardware configuration files reside?
A. $system.system
B. $system.sysnn
C. $system.zsysconf
D. $dsmscm.system
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which tool simplifies the task of migrating a database from many small disks to a smaller number of
large disks?
A. MEDIACOM
B. ASAP
C. SMF
D. MAPPER
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which product can be used to project transaction growths into a resource upgrade timeline?
A. GPA
B. ASAP
C. NSX
D. TCM
Answer: D

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NO.7 DSM/SCM can be used to control customer software. Which program is used to prepare the
software?
A. CNFGINFO
B. ZPHIRNM
C. INITENV
D. INITSTAT
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which prediction is NOT produced by TCM?
A. number of processors required
B. number of logical disk volumes
C. network response time
D. processor and disk utilization
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which element is typically included in a separate document in response to a Request for Proposal
(RFP)?
A. software details
B. timescales
C. cost breakdown
D. hardware details
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which product requires a manual firmware update using TSM?
A. FESA
B. E4SA
C. SWAN
D. TRSA
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which utility is used for routine tape management operations?
A. TAPECOM
B. NSKCOM
C. MEDIACOM
D. TMFCOM
Answer: C

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NO.12 Assuming no I/O enclosures, how many electrical branch circuits are needed to provide power fault
tolerance for a six-processor S7x000 system?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
Answer: D

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NO.13 How can the ServerNet connectivity to CPU 5 be displayed in SCF?
A. INFO SERVERNET 5
B. STATUS SERVERNET $ZSNET
C. INFO SERVERNET $ZSNET
D. STATUS SERVERNET 5
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which tool has replaced Timbuktu for remote support?
A. Timbuk3
B. Remote Copy
C. Carbon Copy
D. PC Anywhere
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which process needs to be configured to ensure Expand connectivity between two systems?
A. $znet
B. $ncp
C. $expand
D. $zzatm
Answer: B

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NO.16 What allows a customer to track open problem cases through the Web?
A. Scout for NonStop servers
B. Express Notice
C. NonStop Technical Library (NTL)
D. Total Web Support (TWS)
Answer: D

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NO.17 How many internal disk SCSI controllers are on a PMF CRU?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: C

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NO.18 To what type of adapter does a default configuration system console connect?
A. E4SA
B. MIOE
C. FESA
D. TRSA
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which items would you expect to see on a network topology diagram? Select TWO.
A. tape devices
B. IP addresses
C. routers
D. disk mapping
E. cable specifications
Answer: BC

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NO.20 Increasing the number of processors in a system _______.
A. provides fault tolerance for the system consoles
B. allows more disk units in group 1 of the system
C. requires a cold load of the system
D. allows more low-pin processes to run in the system
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: ES0-007
Nom d'Examen: RES Software (RES Workspace Manager 2012 Exam)
Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

Code d'Examen: ES0-005
Nom d'Examen: RES Software (RES Automation Manager 2011 Basic Exam)
Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

Code d'Examen: ES0-006
Nom d'Examen: RES Software (RES Automation Manager 2011 Service Orchestration Exam)
Questions et réponses: 40 Q&As

Code d'Examen: ES0-004
Nom d'Examen: RES Software (RES PowerFuse 2010 Basic Exam)
Questions et réponses: 102 Q&As

Code d'Examen: ES0-003
Nom d'Examen: RES Software (RES PowerFuse Series 8 Basic Exam)
Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

Code d'Examen: ES0-002
Nom d'Examen: RES Software (RES Wisdom Series 4 Essentials Exam)
Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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NO.1 RES Wisdom agents communicate directly with the
1. datastore.

NO.2 Which nodes are available in the Management Console after installing it?
A. Infrastructure > Datastore > Setup > Components
B. Infrastructure > Datastore > Setup > Connection
C. Infrastructure > Datastore > Setup > Global Settings
D. Infrastructure > Datastore > Setup > Licensing
Answer: B

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NO.3 management console.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B

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2. Which database types are supported by RES Wisdom?
1. MSSQL
2. MySQL
3. Oracle

NO.4 While installing RES Wisdom
A. a default Security Role will be created.
B. a default RES Wisdom Login Account will be created.
C. the user will be prompted to create a Security Role.
D. the user will be prompted to create a RES Wisdom Login Account.
Answer: A

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NO.5 A RES Wisdom login belongs to the following Security Roles:
Role 1:
Job Scheduling = Read
Current Activity = Deny
Job Results = Read
Role 2:
Job Scheduling = Deny
Current Activity = Read
Job Results = Modify
What is the resulting security for this login?
A. Job Scheduling = Read, Current Activity = Deny, Job Results = Read
B. Job Scheduling = Deny, Current Activity = Read, Job Results = Modify
C. Job Scheduling = Read, Current Activity = Read, Job Results = Modify
D. Job Scheduling = Deny, Current Activity = Deny, Job Results = Read
Answer: C

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NO.6 dispatcher(s).

NO.7 How would an administrator make sure that all active dispatchers are available to an agent?
1. Use autodetect and only use discovered dispatchers
2. Use autodetect and retrieve complete dispatcher address list
3. Use dispatcher address list and only use discovered dispatchers
4. Use dispatcher address list and retrieve complete dispatcher address list after discovery
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 3 and 4 only
Answer: C

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NO.8 When using an MSSQL Server to hold a RES Wisdom datastore, which prerequisites must be met?
1. SQL server authentication must be set to Windows only.
2. SQL server authentication must be set to mixed mode.
3. A database and database user must be created.
4. An existing System Administrator Login must be available.
A. 1 and 4 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
Answer: B

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NO.9 IBM DB2
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: D

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3. Bandwidth Management settings control the amount of data that is downloaded
A. per second by an agent from a dispatcher.
B. per second by a dispatcher from a datastore.
C. per minute by an agent from a dispatcher.
D. per minute by a dispatcher from a datastore.
Answer: A

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4. When using an MSSQL datastore, MDAC 2.6 or higher is required by the
1. agent.
2. console.
3. dispatcher.
4. datastore.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1 and 4 only
Answer: B

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NO.10 With what setting is an administrator able to control when to download a resource to a dispatcher?
A. Dispatcher discovery
B. Dispatcher cache timing
C. Dispatcher cache duration
D. Dispatcher cache availability
Answer: B

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