2014年5月5日星期一

Le matériel de formation de l'examen de meilleur SAP C_TPLM30_66 P_ADM_SEC_70 C_EPMBPC_70

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Code d'Examen: C_TPLM30_66
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Enterprise Asset Management (Maintenance & Repair) with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP6)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

Code d'Examen: P_ADM_SEC_70
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Technology Professional - Security with SAP NetWeaver 7.0)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

Code d'Examen: C_EPMBPC_70
Nom d'Examen: SAP (Business Planning and Consolidation with SAP BPC 7.0)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following statements regarding SSO and SAP Logon Tickets are true?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. Users have the same user ID and password in all of the systems they access using SAP Logon
Tickets.
B. The end users' Web browsers accept cookies (SAP GUI not in use).
C. The clocks for the accepting systems are synchronized with the ticket-issuing system.
D. The SSO ticket is issued after successful login to the SAP NetWeaver AS Java.
E. The cookie is stored in the temporary folder of the local GUI.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.2 When is it acceptable not to take action on an identified risk?
A. Never. Good security has to address and reduce all risks.
B. When political issues prevent this type of risk from being addressed.
C. When the necessary countermeasure is too complex.
D. When the cost of the countermeasure outweighs the value of the asset and the potential loss.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following statements regarding the SAP Security Optimization Service are true?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. It is a local service offered by the SAP Solution Manager.
B. The service can be performed at any time.
C. All checks are automated for the service.
D. The service focuses on internal and external system security.
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 When you use the Central User Administration (CUA), when will your changes to user data become
effective in the child systems? Please also consider the options that the Application Link Enabling
technology (ALE) offers.
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. Changes are replicated immediately.
B. The changes can be replicated by the background job "CUA_Distribute" in the central system.
C. The IDocs that transport the changes to the user master data in the child systems can be collected and
transferred at a later time, triggered by a background job.
D. The changes can be replicated by selecting the button "Distribute all data" in transaction SCUA.
E. The data for CUA will be replicated to the child systems every 60 minutes if no other
setting/configuration overrides this default value.
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 Which of the following statements regarding regulations is false?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. SOX (Sarbanes-Oxley Act) is a binding regulation for companies traded at the US stock market.
B. ITIL (IT Infrastructure Library) represents a universally applicable framework for optimum handling of
processes in IT management.
C. The focus of CobiT (Control Objectives for Information and Related Technology) is on auditors, not on
IT management and IT end users.
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 After the installation of SAP Web Dispatcher you want to create additional users to administer SAP
Web Dispatcher. Where are these users stored?
A. In the table USR02 in AS ABAP.
B. In the local database of SAP Web Dispatcher.
C. In the filesystem.
D. In the table WEBDISP_USER in AS Java.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following is a characteristic of the Segregation of Duties (SOD) principle?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. The SOD principle is a preventive control.
B. The SOD principle is a detective control.
C. Enforcing the SOD principle means that no single individual can carry out a critical task that could
prove to be corruptive to the company.
D. Enforcing the SOD principle means that individuals are capable of performing the tasks for different
roles, rather than depending on just one individual.
Answer: A,C

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NO.8 Which of the following authentication mechanisms are available for SAP NetWeaver AS Java.?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. Security session IDs for Single Sign-On between applications
B. SAP Logon Tickets for Single Sign-On
C. SAML Assertions for Single Sign-On
D. Web Dynpro for Single Sign-On
E. Kerberos Authentication for Single Sign-On
Answer: A,B,C

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2014年5月2日星期五

Meilleur Simens STI-884 test formation guide

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Code d'Examen: STI-884
Nom d'Examen: Simens (SOCA Sales Small & Medium Businesses (SMB))
Questions et réponses: 130 Q&As

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NO.1 Which is an indicator for opportunity if your prospect is driven by growth through productivity? (Choose
two)
A. The prospect is evaluating phone system options due to business changes or expansions.
B. The prospect is investigating productivity features to make the business more efficient.
C. The prospect needs to install a new phone system to provide for the required capacity of the office
space.
D. The phone system of the prospect is outdated and cannot keep up with the growing business
demands.
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 Which best describes the IT-based communications principle of Open Communications?
A. IT-based open Communications enables integration of mobile communications and location
independence across networks.
B. IT-based open Communications uses the latest technology to provide innovative business continuity
services to your customer.
C. IT-based open Communications can be implemented in various forms such as Managed and Hosted
Services.
D. IT-based open Communications means a strong commitment to SIP and LINUX, a clear focus on
IT-oriented deployments.
Answer: D

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NO.3 How do Siemens Open Communications solutions reduce operating costs? (Choose two)
A. By increasing the number of employees.
B. By simplifying infrastructure and costs.
C. By ensuring that employees work from office.
D. By increasing the efficiency of sales teams.
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 Which best represents Siemens' vision for the unification of the various types of communications in
enterprises?
A. LifeWorks
B. Open Communications
C. OpenPath
D. Unified Communications
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which best describes the OpenPath model?
A. How your customers can move their communications environment from where it is today to where they
need it to be.
B. How Siemens' solutions can affect the operating costs and sales of your customers.
C. How to decide which products fit your customers' profile.
D. How to maximize the lifetime values of solutions and services that you provide to your customers.
Answer: A

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NO.6 What does "Open" in Open Communications signify?
A. Siemens provides Software Development Kits (SDKs) and Application Program Interfaces (APIs) that
allow better and easier voice integration.
B. Siemens Unified Communications solutions increase the operational costs due to complex
technologies.
C. Siemens Unified Communications solutions require customers to buy the entire solution instead of the
relevant solution elements.
D. Siemens Open Communications strategy is based on the Open Service Delivery principle.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which are the key reasons that there is a huge shift in the type of technology that small and medium
sized businesses are adopting and are spending money to change their telephone systems? (Choose
three)
A. Personal Mobility.
B. Corporate Excellence.
C. Cost Control.
D. Productivity.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.8 Which is an indicator for opportunity if your prospect is a Value Chief?
A. The prospect has a PC network upgrade planned for implementing a new application.
B. The prospect is moving to a new, more cost-effective office space.
C. The prospect is investigating productivity features to make the business more efficient.
D. The prospect is interested in IP technology but is uneasy about a large initial investment.
Answer: D

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NO.9 What is an important part of the sales qualification process?
A. Ensuring faster decision making for outstanding customer service.
B. Predicting that the size of the small and medium sized business market for communications is stable.
C. Understanding the psychological drivers of the business owner or manager.
D. Enabling employees to remain connected whilst out of office.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which business objectives does the Siemens approach to Open Communications impact while
providing business value to customers? (Choose two)
A. Promoting employee competition.
B. Reducing operation costs.
C. Improving asset efficiency.
D. Enhancing business knowledge.
Answer: B,C

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NO.11 Which describe the motivations of a Transform customer? (Choose two)
A. Business processes are specific solution led
B. Businessprocesses are architecture led
C. Lowest TCO, CapEx, and best CEBP
D. Solution is ROI based
Answer: B,C

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NO.12 Which best describes the Optimize customers under OpenPath?
A. Customers who will make specific investments in upgrading some elements if the business case is
right.
B. Customers who want to replace the older systems with new unified communication solutions.
C. Customers who want to make operational cost savings with minimal change to their current
infrastructure and systems.
D. Customers who want to focus around the implementation of new applications and solutions in their own
right.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which best describes Siemens' most recent application specifically tailored to the needs of the small
and medium sized businesses.?
A. OpenScape
B. Unified Communciations
C. OpenScape Office
D. LifeWorks
Answer: C

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NO.14 How do Siemens Unified Communications solutions facilitate easy growth and expansion for your
customers?
A. Customers can maximize the lifetime value of the solutions and services that you provide them.
B. Customers need to replace their existing applications with new applications.
C. Customers can implement solutions that need a dedicated team to maintain and update frequently.
D. Customers can buy the capabilities that they need now and activate new capabilities with "license
keys" when they are ready in the future.
Answer: D

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NO.15 Why is it critical for customers to have a cost-effective solution that meets the basic needs of small and
medium sized businesses?
A. They want something that works with their existing infrastructure, which is easy to set up and manage.
They typically don t have the money to experiment on new technologies.
B. They need support to help make communications services easier to understand and to promote
internally.
C. A little more than half of small businesses now run a local area network, with 76% of these firms using
a server-based network.
D. They want something that improves business growth by 30% annually.
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which best describes Open Service Delivery in Open Communications?
A. Providing innovative business continuity service to your customer.
B. Implementing Open Communications in a wide variety of forms, including Managed and Hosted
Services.
C. Replacing voice and data infrastructure with new Unified Communications solutions.
D. Enabling integration of mobile communication and location independence across networks.
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which options apply to the Siemens Open Communications strategy? (Choose two)
A. It helps deliver solutions to only small sized businesses.
B. It helps Siemens realize the LifeWorks vision.
C. It provides customers with business value by impacting their growth.
D. It is Siemens' core company strategy and positioning.
Answer: B,D

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NO.18 What makes the Siemens Unified Communications solutions unique in the marketplace?
A. They are proven and mature offerings that operate with your customer's existing IT environment and
provide easy growth and expansion.
B. They leverage existing applications such as Microsoft Outlook.
C. They offer cost savings and productivity enhancing benefits.
D. They enable employees to remain connected when they are out of office.
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which factor affects small and medium sized businesses' ability to make informed decisions about
technology?
A. Customer segmentation.
B. Lack of dedicated IT staff.
C. Unclear business strategy.
D. Lack of market knowledge.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which best describes Siemens' model for migration to Unified Communications?
A. OpenPath
B. LifeWorks
C. Open Service Delivery
D. HiPath 3000
Answer: A

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Le plus récent matériel de formation examen SOA Certified Professional S90-18A de certification

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Code d'Examen: S90-18A
Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (Fundamental SOA Security)
Questions et réponses: 98 Q&As

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NO.1 The requirement to defer security related state data at runtime relates directly to the application of which
service-orientation principle?
A. Service Loose Coupling
B. Service Autonomy
C. Service Abstraction
D. None of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.2 The application of the Brokered Authentication pattern is best suited for a scenario whereby a service
consumer does not need to re-authenticate itself with multiple services.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.3 The owner of a service inventory reports that the public key related to a certain private key has been
lost. There is a concern that this was the result of a security breach. A security specialist recommends
contacting the certificate authority in order to add the corresponding certificate to the certificate authority's
Certificate Revocation List (CRL). However, the certificate authority responds by indicating that this is not
necessary. Which of the following answers explains this response?
A. The certificate authority needs to issue a new public key instead.
B. The certificate authority requires that the existing public key needs to be changed within the existing
certificate.
C. Public keys cannot get lost because they are alreadypublicallyavailable.
D. None of the above
Answer: C

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NO.4 The manager of an IT department decides to split up an existing enterprise service inventory into two
domain service inventories. The public key used previously in the enterprise service inventory can
continue to be used in one of the domain service inventories.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.5 Digital signatures use encryption and hashing.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.6 The application of the Data Origin Authentication pattern only provides message integrity.?
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.7 Service A sends a message to Service B which reads the values in the message header to determine
whether to forward the message to Service C or Service D. Because of recent attacks on Services C and
D, it has been decided to protect the body content of messages using some form of encryption. However,
certain restrictions within the design of Service B will not permit it to be changed to support the encryption
and decryption of messages. Only Services A, C and D can support message encryption and decryption.
Which of the following approaches fulfill these security requirements without changing the role of Service
B?
A. Transport-layer security is implemented between all services.
B. Message-layer security is implemented between all services.
C. Service B is removed. Instead, the routing logic is added to Service A.
D. None of the above
Answer: B

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NO.8 The use of XML-Encryption supports the application of the Service Abstraction principle because the
actual message remains hidden from the attacker.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.9 Service A and Service B belong to Organization A and Service C belongs to Organization B. Service A
sends confidential messages to Service B, which forwards these messages to Service
C. The message sent to Service C is intercepted by a load balancing service agent that determines which
instance of Service C to route the message to. This entire message path needs to be encrypted in order
to ensure message confidentiality from when the message is first sent by Service A until it is received by
an instance of Service C. Organization A doesn't trust any intermediaries that may exist in between
Service B and Service C and also doesn't want to share any keys with Organization B. Furthermore, there
is a requirement to minimize any adverse effects on performance. Which of the following approaches
fulfills these requirements?
A. Use message-layer security by adding symmetric encryption between Services A, B and C. This
way,message content is not available to any intermediaries between Services B and C.
B. Because Service A and Service B exist within the same organizational boundary, use transport-layer
security to provide message confidentiality. Use message-layer security via asymmetric encryption
between Service B and Service C.
C. Use transport-layer security between Service B and Service C and use message-layer security via
asymmetric encryptionbetween Service A and Service B. This way. all the services are secured while at
the same time minimizing the performance degradation between Service B and Service C.
D. None of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.10 A service contract includes a security policy that exposes specific details of the service's underlying
implementation. This is an example of the application of which service-orientation principle?
A. Service Abstraction
B. Service Loose Coupling
C. Standardized Service Contract
D. None of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which of the following is not a hashing algorithm?
A. MD5
B. X.509
C. SHA-1
D. SHA-256
Answer: B

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NO.12 A task service needs to access three entity services as part of a service composition. The task service
needs to authenticate itself every time it accesses one of the three entity services. Because the task
service must authenticate itself three times to complete its task, the current service composition design is
considered inefficient. How can it be improved while continuing to fulfill the authentication requirements?
A. Increase the network bandwidth between the task service and the entity services.
B. Use a single sign-on mechanism.
C. Remove the authentication requirements within the service composition, thereby reducing the
message size and making communication faster.
D. None of the above
Answer: B

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NO.13 The SAML and WS-Security industry standards can be applied to the same service composition
architecture.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.14 Service A relies on a shared identity store. Service B has its own identity store. Service C also has its
own identity store, but must also access the shared identity store used by Service A. Which service has
the least reduction in autonomy as a result of its relationship with identity store mechanism(s)?
A. Service A
B. Service B
C. Service C
D. The autonomy of all services is affected equally
Answer: B

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NO.15 As a requirement for accessing Service B, Service A needs to encrypt its request message. Service B
decrypts the message, makes some changes, encrypts the message, and then forwards it to Service C.
However, the message does not make it to Service C. Instead, a runtime error is raised by a service agent
that does not support encryption. This service agent only requires access to the message header in order
to route the message to the appropriate instance of Service C. It is therefore decided that the header part
of the message will not be encrypted. Which of the following can be used to address this requirement?
A. certificate authority
B. SAML
C. non-repudiation
D. None of the above
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: C90-01A
Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (Fundamental Cloud Computing(C90.01))
Questions et réponses: 69 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following are common types of cloud service consumers? SelectALL THAT APPLY
A. Software programs capable of remotely accessing cloud services with published service contracts.
B. Services capable of remotely accessing cloud services with published service contracts.
C. Humans that use workstations running software capable of remotely accessing IT resources positioned
as cloud services.
D. Mobile devices running software capable of remotely accessing IT resources positioned as cloud
services.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.2 Measured usage is only limited to tracking statistics for billing purposes. It does not encompass the
general monitoring of IT resources and related usage reporting. Therefore, measured usage is only
relevant to clouds that charge for usage. Select the correct answer. ?
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.3 The Limited Portability Between Cloud Providers challenge of cloud computing can occur when an
absence of industry standards (or an absence of compliance to industry standards) requires that cloud
consumers build cloud-based solutions to conform to proprietary requirements imposed by cloud
providers. This makes it more difficult to move to new cloud providers in the future.Select the correct
answer.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.4 .A(n) ____________________ cloud is a cloud environment owned by a third-party cloud provider and
accessible to external cloud consumers. The IT resources in the cloud are generally offered to cloud
consumers at a cost. Select the correct answer.
A. public
B. on-premise
C. private
D. None of the above.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Service agents are provided only by runtime environments and operating systems. As a result, service
agents cannot be custom-developed. Select the correct answer.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: C90-06A
Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (Cloud Architecture Lab)
Questions et réponses: 15 Q&As

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NO.1 Cloud Service A is hosted by Virtual Server A, which is hosted by Hypervisor A that resides on
Physical Server A.
Cloud Storage Device A is used to store media library data that is continuously replicated with a
redundant, secondary implementation of Cloud Storage A (not shown). Access to Cloud Service A is
monitored by Pay-Per-Use Monitor A.
Access to Cloud Storage Device A is monitored by Pay-Per-Use Monitor B.
Pay-Per-Use Monitors A and B capture billing-related usage data that is forwarded to a billing
management system that is hosted by Physical Server B.
Cloud Service Consumer A accesses Cloud Service A and the usage data is captured by Pay-Per-Use
Monitor A (1). Cloud Consumer B accesses Cloud Storage Device A via a usage and administration
portal that it uses to upload media data (2). This usage is captured by Pay-Per-Use Monitor B (3).
Pay-Per-Use Monitors A and B store collected usage data in the billing management system (4),
which is later used by the cloud provider to bill for the usage of Cloud Service A and Cloud Storage
Device A.
Each service instance of Cloud Service A requires a virtual server with 2 virtual CPUs and 4 GBs of
RAM at a package price of $2.00 for each initial invocation and an additional $0.50 for each
consecutive 60 seconds of usage. Cloud Service Consumer A accesses Cloud Service A twice in one
day. The two exchanges with Cloud Service A last 60 seconds and 120 seconds. For that one day, the
organization that owns Cloud Service Consumer A is billed $6.50, which it determines is incorrect.
After complaining to the cloud provider, it is discovered that the rapid provisioning system
responsible for provisioning instances of Cloud Service A is not de-provisioning Cloud Service A
when Cloud Service Consumer A indicates it has completed an exchange. Instead, Cloud Service A is
de-provisioned after a 60 second timeout that occurs after Cloud Service Consumer A is completed
with an exchange.
Storage space on Cloud Storage Device A can only be purchased in units of terabytes (TBs), with
each TB costing $1 per day. Cloud Consumer B purchases 5 TBs of storage space on day 1 and stores
5 TBs of data on days 6 and 7. Cloud Consumer B was expecting to be billed $10.00, but is billed $35.
After raising a complaint, Cloud Consumer B is informed by the cloud provider that cloud consumers
are billed based on the allocation of storage space, regardless of how much storage space they
actually use.
Which of the following statements describes a solution that can update the cloud architecture to
avoid these billing-related problems and discrepancies?
A. The Pay-as-You-Go pattern can be applied together with the Usage Monitoring pattern to
establish a monitoring and billing system capable of de-provisioning Cloud Service A instances when
they are no longer required. The Dynamic Data Normalization pattern can be applied to eliminate
any redundant data stored by Cloud Consumer A so that the amount of required storage space is
minimized.
B. The Platform Provisioning pattern can be applied to create an intelligent automation script
capable of immediately de-provisioning cloud service instances. The Redundant Storage pattern can
be applied to introduce a secondary cloud storage device for which storage space can be billed
based on actual usage.
C. The Self-Provisioning pattern can be applied to enable the organization that owns Cloud Service
Consumer B to configure how and to what extent Cloud Service A instances need to be provisioned.
The Resource Management pattern can be applied to establish a storage system that bills cloud
consumers for actual storage space usage only.
D. None of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Ready-Made Environment A is hosted by Virtual Server A and Ready-Made Environments is
hosted by Virtual Server B.
Virtual Servers A and B are hosted by Hypervisor A, which is part of a hypervisor cluster. An
automated scaling listener intercepts cloud consumer requests and automatically invokes the
on-demand generation of additional instances of ready-made environments, as required.
A self-service portal and a usage and administration portal are also available to cloud consumers.
The self-service portal can be used to request the provisioning of a new ready-made environment.
Any cloud consumer that has already had a ready-made environment provisioned can configure and
view information about that ready-made environment via the usage and administration portal.
Cloud Consumer A accesses Ready-Made Environment A to work on the development of a new
cloud service (1). Cloud Consumer B accesses Ready-Made Environment B to test a recently
completed application comprised of three cloud services (2). Cloud Consumer C accesses the
self-service portal to request the creation of a new ready-made environment (3).
The cloud provider is required to perform an emergency maintenance outage on a cloud storage
device used by all ready-made environments. The unplanned outage takes two hours. During this
period, Cloud Consumers A and B are unable to access Ready-Made Environments A and B and
Cloud Consumer C receives an error when submitting a request to create a new ready-made
environment.
After the maintenance outage is over, Cloud Consumers A and B encounter the following problems:
-Cloud Consumer A is unable to recover session data that was kept in memory for an extended
period, prior to the time of the outage. -Cloud Consumer B has no access to Virtual Server B, which
was moved to Hypervisor B during
the maintenance outage. When Cloud Consumer B attempts to ping Virtual Server B, the
request times out.
Even though Cloud Consumer C is able to log into the usage and administration portal to confirm
that its ready-made environment was successfully provisioned, the unexpected outage has raised
concerns about the stability of the ready-made environment's underlying infrastructure. Cloud
Consumer C informs the cloud provider that it cannot proceed with its lease of the ready-made
environment if there are future occurrences of this type of maintenance outage.
Which of the following statements can help address the problems and concerns of the three cloud
consumers?
A. A combination of the Load Balanced Virtual Server Instances and Synchronized Operating State
patterns can be applied to establish a system capable of deferring state across multiple cloud
storage devices, each located on a different virtual server. The Elastic Disk Provisioning pattern can
be applied to persist virtual server configuration data across hypervisors so that connectivity is
preserved whenever a virtual server is relocated to a different hypervisor. The Zero Downtime
pattern can be applied to ensure that none of the ready-made environments or virtual servers are
subject to a maintenance outage in the future.
B. The Elastic Disk Provisioning and Cross-Storage Device Vertical Tiering patterns can be applied to
establish a cloud architecture that supports a set of cloud storage devices, each with different tiers
that cloud consumers can choose to scale to The Synchronized Operating State pattern can be
applied in combination with the Hypervisor Clustering pattern to avoid further virtual server and
ready-made environment connectivity problems. The Redundant Storage pattern can be applied so
that if a cloud storage device fails, a secondary implementation of the cloud storage device
automatically takes over processing tasks, thereby avoiding outages.
C. The Service State Management pattern can be appliedto establish a system that canpersist
session data in a database. The Persistent Virtual Network Configuration pattern can be applied to
centralize the configuration data necessary for virtual servers to remain accessible after they have
been relocated to different hypervisors. The Storage Maintenance Window pattern can be applied
to establish a system that allows cloud storage devices to be maintained without causing outages.
D. None of the above.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Cloud Service A requires access to Cloud Storage Device A, which contains LUNs A and B.
Cloud Service A is hosted by Virtual Server A, which resides on Hypervisor A on Physical Server A.
Virtual Server B hosts Cloud Service B and Cloud Service C.
Cloud Service Consumer A accesses Cloud Service A (1), which then accesses LUN A or B on Cloud
Storage Device A (2). After receiving the requested data from Cloud Service A, Cloud Service
Consumer A forwards the data to Cloud Service B (3), which then writes it to Cloud Storage Device B
(4).
Cloud Service Consumer A belongs to Organization A.
Organization A uses LUN A and LUN B on Cloud Storage Device A to store their important client
account data. Cloud Storage Device A is a low-performance cloud storage device, which begins to
cause performance issues as more data is added to LUNs A and B and as Cloud Service Consumer A
performs data access requests more frequently. Organization A asks that its cloud architecture be
upgraded to process increased quantities of data and higher volumes of data requests.
Organization A has been leasing a PaaS environment that it used to build Cloud Service A, which it
would like to make available to the general public. Organization A needs to establish a system
capable of monitoring usage of Cloud Service A for billing purposes.
The cloud provider is using a usage data collection and reporting system that gathers information on
Organization A's hosted IT resources approximately ten hours after the time of usage. One day,
Organization A attempts to retrieve information on whether Virtual Server B has available Cloud
Service C instances. They discover that they are unable to obtain the current status of Virtual Server
B.
Organization A demands a system that provides instant availability reporting.
Which of the following statements lists the patterns that can be applied to solve these three
requirements and problems?
Which of the following statements lists the patterns that can be applied to solve these three
requirements and problems?
A. Cross-Storage Device Vertical Tiering, Pay-as-You-Go. Self-Provisioning
B. Service Load Balancing, Pay-as-You-Go, Multipath Resource Access
C. Intra-Storage Device Vertical Data Tiering, Usage Monitoring, Centralized Remote Administration
D. None of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Cloud Storage Device A contains LUN A and can be accessed by external cloud consumers via a
proprietary user portal that is used primarily by cloud consumers to upload and manage data for
backup purposes. Pay-Per-Use Monitor A tracks the amount of data being uploaded and forwards
this information to a billing management system. Cloud Storage Device B is a secondary cloud
storage device. Data from Cloud Storage Device A is replicated synchronously to Cloud Storage
Device B using a storage replication program (not shown). Cloud Storage Device A is further
administered by a cloud resource administrator that works for the cloud provider, who accesses the
cloud storage device via an internal usage and administration portal.
Three different cloud consumers (Sarah. William, Matilda) access Cloud Storage Device A to upload
data for backup purposes (1). These three cloud consumers belong to different
departments within the same organization, and therefore all three share LUN A.
Pay-Per-Use Monitor A collects the storage space data and forwards it to the billing management
system (2).
The cloud provider offers premium and discount storage plans. With the premium plan, the data
stored on Cloud Storage Device A is also replicated to Cloud Storage Device B.
With the discount plan, the data stored on Cloud Storage Device A is not replicated. Both plans are
based on fixed-disk storage allocation. The cost of the premium plan is $5 per week for every GB of
storage space and the cost of the discount plan is $2 per week for every GB of storage space. The
SLA from the cloud provider guarantees availability of 97% for access to Cloud Storage Device A.
The three cloud consumers use Cloud Storage Device A as follows:
-Sara signs up for the discount backup plan and is allocated 50 GBs of storage space. A week later,
she uploads 10 GBs of backup data. A week after that, she uploads another 35 GBs. She later finds
out that for those two weeks her organization was billed $200, which is more than she was
expecting. After she complains to the cloud provider, she learns about how fixed-disk storage
allocation is billed. She asks the cloud provider to change her account to a different
storage plan where she is only billed for the actual amount of storage space she uses at any
given time. The cloud provider assures her that a new system will be set up to accommodate
this request.
-William is on the premium backup plan. He uploads 1 to 3 GBs of important business data every
day. After two weeks of daily uploads, he realizes that the centralized nature of the backup data on
the cloud makes it more convenient for reporting purposes than the distributed nature of the same
data in his on-premise environment. He uses an analysis tool to run queries against the cloud-based
data. However, due to the large quantity of redundant data, the queries end up being ineffective
and take too long to run. He asks the cloud provider to find a solution that can streamline the
cloud-based data by reducing redundancy. By reducing the overall quantity of the data, the analysis
queries will run faster.
-Matilda is on the discount backup plan and uploads backup data on a daily basis. Over the course
of two weeks she uploads over 200 GBs of data. She performs a daily backup at the end of each day
by identifying the data to back up and then using the proprietary user portal to run the cloud
backup procedure. This procedure can take 5 to 45 minutes, depending on the amount of data she
is uploading. Matilda performs this as her last task of the day and therefore initiates the procedure
before she leaves, but does not wait for it to complete. One day, she receives an e-mail from the
cloud provider explaining that the backup procedure from the previous day had failed due to an
unexpected hardware failure that occurred on Cloud Storage Device A.
The notification e-mail goes on to state that this type of failure falls within the 97% availability
guarantee of her organization's SLA, and is therefore in compliance with the current provisioning
agreement. Had a disaster occurred that night, the on-premise data could have been lost and
Matilda would be held accountable. Matilda contacts the cloud provider to demand that the
provisioning agreement be amended to upgrade their existing SLA to the maximum possible
availability (which, for this cloud provider, is 99.999%). The cloud provider agrees to establish a
system to accommodate this request.
Which of the following statements lists the patterns that can be applied to address the three issues
raised by the three cloud consumers?
A. Storage Workload Management, Elastic Disk Provisioning, Centralized Remote Administration
B. Elastic Disk Provisioning, Dynamic Data Normalization, Zero Downtime
C. Storage Maintenance Window, Dynamic Failure Detection and Recovery, Broad Access
D. None of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Cloud Sen/ice A is hosted by Virtual Server A, which is hosted by Hypervisor A on Physical
Server
A. Cloud Service B is hosted by Virtual Server B.
Virtual Server C hosts Cloud Services C and D.
Virtual Server B and Virtual Server C are hosted by Hypervisor B on Physical Server B.
Cloud Service Consumer A accesses Cloud Service A (1). Cloud Service Consumer B accesses Cloud
Service A (2). Cloud Service Consumer C accesses Cloud Service A (3) and then accesses Cloud
Service B (4).
Cloud Service Consumers A, B and C simultaneously access Cloud Service A.
Cloud Service Consumer C receives a runtime exception and its request for access is rejected. It is
determined that Cloud Service Consumer C attempted to upload a large amount of input data for
Cloud Service A, which exceeded the bandwidth threshold of the virtual network. The cloud
architecture needs to be improved to avoid this from happening again.
Cloud Service Consumer C's repeated access of Cloud Service B imposes workloads that are large
and highly unpredictable. After some time, Cloud Service B begins to delay its responses and
sometimes times out entirely. The cloud resource administrator discovers that Virtual Server B is
unstable and close to failure primarily because its CPU and memory resources are being used to
their maximum capacity.
Cloud Services C and D are being positioned as SaaS products for use by a range of cloud consumer
organizations. After their initial release, they begin to quickly use up the available memory in Virtual
Server C, primarily because of the large amounts of state and session data they need to place into
memory for extended periods.
Which of the following statements lists the patterns that can be applied to solve these three
requirements and problems?
A. Elastic Network Capacity, Load Balanced Virtual Server Instances, Service State Management
B. Elastic Resource Capacity, Service Load Balancing, Synchronized Operating State
C. Persistent Virtual Network Configuration. Load Balanced Virtual Switches, Service State
Management
D. None of the above.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: HIO-301
Nom d'Examen: HIPAA (Certified HIPAA Security)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 This standard requires that the entity establishes agreements with each organization with which it
exchanges data electronically, protecting the security of all such data.
A. Business Associate Contracts and Other Arrangements
B. Security Incident Procedures
C. Chain of Trust Contract
D. Trading Partner Agreement
E. Assigned security responsibility
Answer: A

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NO.2 The HIPAA security standards are designed to be comprehensive, technology neutral and:
A. Based on NIST specifications
B. Based on ISO specifications
C. Reasonable
D. Scalable
E. Implementable
Answer: D

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NO.3 Risk Management is a required implementation specification of this standard:
A. Security Incident Procedures
B. Technical Safeguards
C. Security Management Process
D. Information Access Management
E. Security Configuration Management
Answer: C

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NO.4 This is a self-contained program that uses security flaws such as buffer overflow to remotely
compromise a system and then replicate itself to that system. Identify this program (threat):
A. Trojan horse
B. Trapdoor
C. Master book sector virus
D. Cracker
E. Worm
Answer: E

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NO.5 This HIPAA security category covers the use of locks, keys and administrative measures used to
control access to computer systems:
A. Technical Safeguards
B. Technical Services
C. Physical Security Policy
D. Administrative Safeguards
E. Physical Safeguards
Answer: E

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NO.6 This is a program that is a type of malicious code. It is unauthorized code that is contained within a
legitimate program and performs functions unknown to the user.
A. Trojan horse
B. Distributed Denial of Service
C. Stealth virus
D. Polymorphic virus
E. Denial of Service
Answer: A

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NO.7 Media Re-use is a required implementation specification associated with which security standard?
A. Facility Access Controls
B. Workstation Use
C. Workstation Security
D. Device and Media Controls
E. Access Control
Answer: D

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NO.8 The objective of this implementation specification is to conduct an accurate and thorough assessment
of the potential vulnerabilities to the confidentiality, integrity and availability of electronic protected health
information held by the covered entity.?
A. Risk Analysis
B. Network Management Policy
C. Security Policy
D. Access Controls
E. Audit Controls
Answer: A

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NO.9 Documented instructions for responding to and reporting security violations are referred to as:
A. Business Associate agreement
B. Security Incident Procedures
C. Non-repudiation
D. Sanction Policy
E. Risk Management
Answer: B

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NO.10 This is a documented and routinely updated plan to create and maintain, for a specific period of time,
retrievable copies of information:
A. Disaster Recovery Plan
B. Data Backup Plan
C. Facility Backup Plan
D. Security Plan
Answer: B

HIPAA   HIO-301   HIO-301   HIO-301   HIO-301

NO.11 The Contingency Plan standard includes this addressable implementation specification:
A. Access Authorization Procedure
B. Testing and Revision Procedures
C. Virus Protection Plan Procedure
D. Sanctions Policy and Procedure
E. Authentication Procedures
Answer: B

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NO.12 A required implementation specification of the contingency plan standard is:
A. Chain of Trust Agreement
B. Applications and Data Criticality Analysis
C. Security Training
D. Disaster Recovery Plan
E. Internal Audit
Answer: D

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NO.13 ° E va l ua ti o ¡± is a st and ard w i thin
A. Administrative Safeguards
B. Physical Safeguards
C. Technical Safeguards
D. Privacy Safeguards
E. Electronic Signatures
Answer: A

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NO.14 This addressable implementation specification is about procedures for ° ove r see i n ¡± w orkfor c
members that work with electronic protected health information or in locations where it might be
accessed.
A. Risk Management
B. Sanction Policy
C. Authorization and/or Supervision
D. Unique User Identification
E. Integrity Controls
Answer: C

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NO.15 The Security Incident Procedures standard includes this implementation specification:
A. Prevention Procedures
B. Alarm Device
C. Threat Analysis Procedures
D. Detection Procedures
E. Response and Reporting
Answer: E

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NO.16 This standard addresses restricting physical access to electronic PHI data through interface devices to
authorized users:
A. Facility Security Plan
B. Person or Entity Authentication
C. Workstation Security
D. Contingency Plan
E. Access Control
Answer: C

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NO.17 The Security Management Process standard includes this implementation specification: A. Risk
Reduction Policy
B. Audit Control
C. Risk Management
D. Detection Procedures
E. Training
Answer: C

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NO.18 The objective of this standard is to perform a periodic review in response to environmental or
operational changes affecting the security of electronic protected health information.
A. Security Management Process
B. Integrity
C. Audit Controls
D. Evaluation
E. Transmission Security
Answer: D

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NO.19 An addressable Implementation Specification of Facility Access Controls is:
A. Unauthorized Access
B. Security Configurations
C. Accountability
D. Maintenance Records
E. Media Disposal
Answer: D

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NO.20 This is a standard within Physical Safeguards
A. Contingency Operations
B. Workstation Use
C. Security Incident Management
D. Disaster Recovery E. Disposal
Answer: B

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NO.1 Which of the following elements are the subelements of the mime-mapping element in a
deployment descriptor file?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. exception-type
B. error-code
C. extension
D. mime-type
E. servlet-class
Answer: C,D

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NO.2 Which of the following functions are performed by methods of the
HttpSessionActivationListener interface?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Notifying the object when it is bound to a session.
B. Notifying an attribute that a session has just migrated from one JVM to another.
C. Notifying the object when it is unbound from a session.
D. Notifying an attribute that a session is about to migrate from one JVM to another.
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 Mark works as a Programmer for InfoTech Inc. He develops the following deployment descriptor code.
<web-app . . . .
>
<display-name>A Secure Application</display-name><servlet>
..
.
<security-role-ref
>
<role-name>Manager</role-name>
<role-link>Admin</role-link>
</security-role-ref>
</servlet>
<security-role>
<role-name>Programmer</role-name>
</security-role>
<security-role>
<role-name>Admin</role-name>
</security-role>
<security-role>
<role-name>Employee</role-name>
</security-role>
</web-app>
Which of the following is a valid isUserInRole() method call that can be made if request is the
HttpServletRequest request?
A. request.isUserInRole("Programmer");
B. request.isUserInRole("Manager");
C. request.isUserInRole("Admin");
D. request.isUserInRole("Employee");
Answer: B

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NO.4 Given a code of a class named PrintString that prints a string.
1. public class PrintString{
2. public static void main(String args[]){
3. /*insert code here */
4. /* insert code here */
5. System.out.println(str);
6. }
7. }
Which of the following code fragments can be inserted in the class PrintString to print the output
"4247"?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. StringBuilder str= new StringBuilder("123456789");
str.delete(0,3).replace(1,3,"24").delete(4,6);
B. StringBuffer str= new StringBuffer("123456789");
str.delete(0,3).replace(1,3,"24").delete(4,6);
C. StringBuffer str=new StringBuffer("123456789");
str.substring(3,6).delete(1,2).insert(1,"24");
D. StringBuilder str= new StringBuilder("123456789");
str.deleteCharAt(6).replace(1,3,"24").delete(0,3);
E. String str="123456789";
str=(str-"123").replace(1,3,"24")-"89";
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 Which of the following statements is true?
A. All UTF characters are eight bits long.
B. All UTF characters are all sixteen bits long.
C. All UTF characters are twenty four bits long.
D. All bytecode characters are sixteen bits long.
E. All unicode characters are sixteen bits long.
Answer: E

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NO.6 Which of the following methods of the EJBContext interface can be called by both the BMT and CMT
beans?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. getCallerPrincipal()
B. getRollbackOnly()
C. getUserTransaction()
D. isCallerInRole()
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 Which of the following statements correctly describe the features of the singleton pattern?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Singletons are used to control object creation by limiting the number to one but allowing the flexibility to
create more objects if the situation changes.
B. Singletons can only be stateless, providing utility functions that need no more information than their
parameters.
C. A singleton class may disappear if no object holds a reference to the Singleton object, and it will be
reloaded later when the singleton is needed again.
D. The behavior of a singleton can be obtained by static fields and methods such as
java.lang.Math.sin(double).
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.8 You have written the following code snippet.
1. public class Read {
2. protected int ReadText(int x) { return 0; }
3. }
4. class Text extends Read {
5. /*insert code here*/
6. }
Which of the following methods, inserted independently at line 5, will compile?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. private int ReadText(long x) { return 0; }
B. protected long ReadText(int x, int y) { return 0; }
C. protected long ReadText(long x) { return 0; }
D. protected int ReadText(long x) { return 0; }
E. private int ReadText(int x) { return 0; }
F. public int ReadText(int x) { return 0; }
G. protected long ReadText(int x) { return 0; }
Answer: A,B,C,D,F

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NO.9 Which of the following classes is an engine class that provides an opaque representation of
cryptographic parameters?
A. DSAPublicKeySpec
B. AlgorithmParameterGenerator
C. DSAParameterSpec
D. AlgorithmParameters
Answer: D

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NO.10 John works as a Software Developer for VenTech Inc. He writes the following code using Java.
public class vClass extends Thread
{
public static void main(String args[])
{
vClass vc=new vClass();
vc.run();
}
public void start()
{
for(int k=0;k<20;k++)
{
System.out.println("The value of k = "+k);
}
}
}
What will happen when he attempts to compile and execute the application.?
A. The application will compile successfully and the values from 0 to 19 will be displayed as the output.
B. A compile-time error will occur indicating that no run() method is defined for the Thread class.
C. A runtime error will occur indicating that no run() method is defined for the Thread class.
D. The application will compile successfully but will not display anything as the output.
Answer: D

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NO.11 You work as a programmer for PassGuide.Inc. You have a session object named session1 with an
attribute named Attribute1, and an HttpSessionBindingEvent object binding1 bound to session1.
Which of the following will be used to retrieve Attribute1?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Object obj=binding1.getSession().getAttribute("Attribute1");
B. Object obj=binding1.getAttribute("Attribute1");
C. Long MyAttribute=session1.getAttribute("Attribute1");
D. String str1=session1.getAttribute("Attribute1");
E. Object obj=session1.getAttribute("Attribute1");
Answer: A,E

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NO.12 Which of the following deployment descriptor elements must contain the <transport-guarantee>
element as its mandatory sub-element?
A. <user-data-constraint>
B. <web-resource-collection>
C. <auth-constraint>
D. <login-config>
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which of the following statements are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. An inner class cannot be defined as private.
B. An inner class cannot be defined as protected.
C. An inner class can be defined as private.
D. An inner class can extend another class.
Answer: C,D

GIAC   GSSP-JaVa   GSSP-JaVa

NO.14 Mark writes a class Practice.java. This class needs to access the com.bar.Test class that is stored in
the Test.jar file in the directory /practice. How would you compile your code?
A. javac -classpath /practice/Test.jar Practice.java
B. javac -classpath /practice/ Practice.java
C. javac -classpath /practice/Test.jar/com/bar Practice.java
D. javac -classpath /practice Practice.java
Answer: A

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NO.15 Mark works as a Programmer for InfoTech Inc. He develops a deployment descriptor code that contains
three valid
<security-constraint> elements.
All of them constraining a Web resource Res1, the
<auth-constraint> sub-element of the <security-constraint>
elements are as follows.
<auth-constraint>Admin</auth-constraint>
<auth-constraint>Manager</auth-constraint>
<auth-constraint/>
Which of the following can access the resource Res1?
A. Only Manager can access the resource.
B. No one can access the resource.
C. Everyone can access the resource.
D. Only Admin can access the resource.
Answer: B

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NO.16 John works as a Programmer for Technostar Inc. He writes the following code using Java.
1. class WrapperClass{
2. public static void main(String[] argv){
3. String str2 = Double.toString(12);
4. String str1 = Double.toHexString(12);
5. System.out.println(str1+str2);
6. }
7. }
What will happen when John attempts to compile and execute the code?
A. It will not compile because the Double class does not contain the toHexString() method.
B. It will compile and execute successfully and will display 8p312 as the output.
C. It will compile and execute successfully and will display 0x1.8p312.0 as the output.
D. It will not compile because the Double class does not contain the toString() method.
Answer: C

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NO.17 Mark works as a Programmer for InfoTech Inc. He develops a Website that uses HTML and processes
HTML validation. Which of the following are the advantages of the HTML application?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It provides password protection for a Web page or directory
B. It can be accessed by more visitors.
C. It provides faster loading.
D. It is easier to update and maintain the site.
E. It protects the source or images of a HTML Web page.
F. It puts less load on the server.
Answer: B,C,D,F

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NO.18 Which of the following statements about programmatic security are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. The bean provider is responsible for writing code for programmatic security.
B. It is also called as instance level security.
C. It is implemented using methods of the EJBContext interface.
D. It is implemented using the methods of the UserTransaction interface.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.19 Which of the following statements about a JAR file are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It cannot be accessed through a class path, nor they can be used by java and javac.
B. It is used to compress and archive data.
C. It can be moved from one computer to another.
D. It is created by using the jar command.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.20 You work as a Software Developer for UcTech Inc. You create a session using the HttpSession
interface. You want the attributes to be informed when the session is moved from one JVM to another and
also when an attribute is added or removed from the session. Which of the following interfaces can you
use to accomplish the task?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. HttpSessionBindingListener
B. HttpSessionListener
C. HttpSessionActivationListener
D. HttpSessionAttributeListener
Answer: C,D

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