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Code d'Examen: 4A0-104
Nom d'Examen: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent Services Architecture)
Questions et réponses: 141 Q&As

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NO.1 The diagram above shows the MPLS packet format for transporting L2 services over an MPLS
transport tunnel. In the diagram what does "YYYYY" represent?
A. Service VC label
B. Control word
C. Inner label
D. TCP/IP header
Answer: B

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NO.2 The diagram above shows the MPLS packet format for transporting L2 services over an MPLS
transport tunnel. What encapsulation method is represented by ZZZZZ above?
A. Kompella
B. Alcatel
C. Martini
D. HDLC
Answer: C

Alcatel-Lucent   certification 4A0-104   4A0-104   certification 4A0-104   4A0-104

NO.3 Point to multipoint MPLS Layer 2 VPN connectivity and encapsulation is described most accurately by
which of the following?
A. RFC 4448: Encapsulation methods for transport of Ethernet over MPLS.
B. RFC3201: Definitions of Managed Objects for Circuit to Interface Translation.
C. RFC 4762: VPLS over LDP Signaling
D. RFC 4364 BGP/MPLS Layer-3 VPN
Answer: C

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NO.4 Martini encapsulation typically makes use of the control word in which of the following situations?
(Choose two)
A. Ethernet
B. ATM AAL5
C. TDM
D. HDLC
E. Frame Relay
Answer: BE

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NO.5 Identify the correct labels for the Martini encapsulation diagram above.
A. XX Transport Label, YY VC Label, ZZ Control Word
B. XX VC Label, YY Transport Label, ZZ Control Word
C. XX VC Label, YY Control Word, ZZ Transport Label
D. XX Control Word, YY VC Label, ZZ Transport Label
E. XX Control Word, YY Transport Label, ZZ VC Label
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 3M0-700
Nom d'Examen: 3COM (Certified IP Telephony Specialist)
Questions et réponses: 100 Q&As

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NO.1 Which three are true statements concerning Silence Suppression? (Choose 3.)
A. Enabling Silence Suppression prioritizes voice traffic
B. Can be enabled or disabled for the entire system only
C. Can be enabled or disabled only for individual telephones
D. Enabling Silence Suppression reduces network traffic
E. Can be enabled or disabled for the entire system, or for individual telephones and line card ports
F. A device that detects silence in a conversation will not send any packets to the other device during the
period of silence
G. A device that detects silence in conversation sends a small packet with a "silence indicator,"rather than
a full packet of "digitized silence"
Answer: DEG

3COM   3M0-700   3M0-700

NO.2 Which two are features of the NBX NetSet Administration Utility? (Choose two.)
A. Allows users to sign on with a username of "user" and use their voicemail password for access
B. Is found on 3Com's NBX systems, as well as, licensed 3rd party Ethernet-based telephony systems
C. Can be accessed through the default IP address of 192.168.1.190.
D. Can be accessed through the default IP address of 192.168.1.191.
E. Allows the administrator to sign on with a username of "administrator" and a password of "0000" for
access
Answer: CE

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NO.3 How does the NBX administrator load a local country Dial Plan, for example, Norway or Portugal?
A. Dial Plan / Tables/ User-Defined File ?select country and click Import
B. Dial Plan / Operations/ User-Defined File ?select country and click Import
C. Dial Plan / Tables/ Default File ?select country from drop-down menu and click Import
D. Dial Plan / Operations/ Default File ?select country from drop-down menu and click Import
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which two are features of an NBX Calling Group? (Choose two.)
A. Member phones ring simultaneously for incoming calls
B. Calling Groups are the same as NBX Key Mode configuration
C. Up to 100 Calling Groups can be configured on an NBX 100 system
D. NBX administrator can define "ring progression" for a Calling Group
E. Member login/logout password is defined by NBX administrator using NetSet
Answer: AE

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NO.5 Which two devices are not supported by an NBX Analog Terminal Card (ATC) or Analog Terminal
Adapter (ATA)? (Choose two.)
A. Modem
B. FAX machine
C. Cordless phone
D. Credit card reader
E. External bell or pager
F. Standard telephone that requires a DTMF connection
Answer: AD

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NO.6 Which four Call Forward user settings are available to a user logged into NetSet on a NBX
Communication System? (Choose four.)
A. Forward calls to voicemail box
B. Forward calls to an e-mail inbox
C. Disconnect (no forwarding) calls
D. Forward calls to another phone number
E. Forward calls to an Automated Attendant
F. Do not ring, which places the caller into voice mail
G. Forward calls to the LCD Directory so the caller can contact another employee if they choose
Answer: ACDE

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NO.7 Which three best describe how members Login/Logout of a Hunt Group? (Choose three.)
A. Group members can login and logout as their schedule requires
B. A forced login member is always logged in whether they are at their phone or not
C. To login/logout a user only needs to pickup their phone and enter their voice mail password
D. Administrator can set optional automatic logout to force a logout if an incoming call is not
Answered at a phone
E. All members must login only once during the day. They are automatically logged out at the end of the
day based on the NBX System Business Time definition
F. A dynamic login member must login at the start of a day and will only need to login again if they are
logged out after 15 minutes pass between phone calls
Answer: ABD

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NO.8 Which four are features of the NBX QSIG Basic Service support? (Choose four.)
A. Recommended for use on a PSTN public network
B. Passes Caller ID information across QSIG tie lines
C. NBX system only functions in Slave Mode operation
D. Used to nest traditional PBX systems behind an NBX
E. Supports fractional QSIG on the NBX Digital Line Cards
F. Optimized for inter-PBX signaling, useful for implementing tie trunks
G. Connects 3rd party PBX systems with Master Mode support to an NBX system
Answer: BCFG

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NO.9 How do NBX phones prioritize audio traffic?
A. NBX phones forward all voice packets to IEEE 802.1p aware hubs
B. NBX phones tag voice packets using DiffServ for all LAN communication
C. NBX phones use VLAN-tagged frames with the priority level automatically set to 6
D. NBX phones place audio traffic into a priority queue within the NCP, forwarding all voice traffic before
forwarding data packets
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which three are prioritization mechanisms used with the NBX Communication Systems? (Choose
three.)
A. IP TOS
B. Diff Serv
C. IEEE 802.3
D. IEEE 802.1p
E. ANSI 96/RS232
Answer: ABD

3COM   certification 3M0-700   certification 3M0-700

NO.11 Which four are characteristics or requirements for NBX Bridge Station Appearance (BSA) assuming
only 3102 business phones are used in the customer location? (Choose four.)
A. Maps a primary phone to a secondary phone
B. Only need to configure the primary phone settings
C. Up to 16 extensions can be mapped to a common secondary phone
D. To configure BSA settings select Device Configuration / Telephones then select Button Mappings
E. Either phone can
Answer a call, as incoming primary-phone calls appear on primary and secondary phone
F. Incoming calls to primary phone are automatically transferred to secondary phone based on
time-of-day settings
Answer: ACDE

3COM   3M0-700   3M0-700   3M0-700   3M0-700

NO.12 Which four are features of the NBX Analog Line Card? (Choose four.)
A. An NBX V5000 chassis supports only one Analog Line card at a time
B. The NBX Auto Discover Line Cards function can be used to find newly installed Analog Line Cards
C. In Key System Mode, CO lines connected to an Analog Line Card can be mapped to one or more
telephones
D. Its Power Failure Jack provides access to the telephone CO in case of a NBX power failure
E. By default, when a port is mapped to multiple telephones, calls will ring at the lowest extension first,
then to the next extension, until the call is
Answered
F. In PBX System Mode, CO lines connected to an Analog Line Card are pooled and allocated by the Call
Processor for use by any phone for outbound calls
G. In Hybrid Mode, incoming calls go to an Auto Attendant only and CO lines are pooled and allocated by
the Call Processor for use by any phone on the system
Answer: BCDF

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NO.13 Which three office-to-office and/or office-to-remote user call options are supported by the NBX systems?
(Choose three.)
A. With a single NBX system at HQ, users can call to/from a remote office across the data network WAN
link using Layer 3 IP communications
B. With a NBX Network Call Processor (NCP) and NBX ConneXtions Gateways at each site, users can
call to/from the sites via a Virtual Tie Line (VTL)
C. With a single NBX system at HQ and pcXset on the remote office PC, the remote user can call to/from
HQ via any WAN link using TCP/IP Layer 4 communications
D. With a NBX Network Call Processor (NCP) at each location, users can call to/from the sites via a
Virtual Tie Line (VTL) using IP On-the-Fly or a Standard IP license
E. With a NBX system and NBX ConneXtions Gateways at each location, users can call to/from the sites
via a WAN link that supports IP protocol, for example, VPN, T1, E1 and Frame Relay
Answer: ADE

3COM   3M0-700   3M0-700   3M0-700 examen

NO.14 A manager at extension 3002 has asked you to setup a NBX Communication System to allow an
assistant at extension 1010 to filter calls. You have decided the best way to do this is Bridged Station
Appearance. You have already setup the primary phones button mappings. Which is the correct
extension number to add to the secondary phone Bridged Extension Number Field?
A. 1010
B. 1010-2
C. 3002
D. 3002-2
Answer: C

3COM   certification 3M0-700   certification 3M0-700   3M0-700

NO.15 Which three best describe PRI QSIG? (Choose three.)
A. For use on PSTN only
B. Is a proprietary 3Com protocol
C. Designed for IP-PBX to TAPI Server
D. For use on private lines, leased lines or VPN only
E. Optimized for inter-PBX signaling for tie line support
F. Requires clocking (Master mode) by one end station (PBX)
Answer: DEF

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NO.16 The NBX Dial Plan supports Direct Inward Dialing/Dialed Number Identification Service (DID/DNIS).
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which three are maintenance alert features on the NBX system? (Choose three.)
A. Can send alert to voicemail
B. Can send alert to a pager or email
C. Can send alert to 3rd party voice messaging systems
D. Can be configured to send alerts to up to 15 mailboxes
E. Can be configured to send an alert for any physical device failure
F. Maintenance alert function is supported on the NBX 100 Communications System only
Answer: ABD

3COM examen   3M0-700   3M0-700

NO.18 Which two are accurate statements? (Choose two.)
A. NBX 100 supports 48 VTLs
B. NBX V5000 supports 48 VTLs
C. NBX V3000 supports 48 VTLs
D. NBX V5000 supports 72 VTLs
Answer: BC

3COM   3M0-700   3M0-700   3M0-700

NO.19 Which of the following terms are associated with Emergency 911?
A. 911 Database
B. ACT -Automatic Caller Tracking
C. PSAP-Public Safety Access Point
D. ALI -Automatic Location Identification
E. ANI-Automatic Number Identification
F. PEAP -Public Emergency Access Point
Answer: ACDE

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NO.20 What is the easiest way for the NBX system administrator to set up calling permissions and/or
restrictions for a group of users?
A. Define a Type of Service (ToS) and then assign the ToS to each user
B. Define a Class of Service (CoS) and then assign the CoS to each user
C. Define a User Configuration and then assign the Configuration to each user
D. Define a Type of Service (ToS), define a new group for the users and then assign the group to the new
ToS
E. Define a Class of Service (CoS), define a new group for the users and then assign the group to the new
CoS
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 3M0-200
Nom d'Examen: 3COM (3COM 3M0-200)
Questions et réponses: 50 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following is NOT a standard port available on the Router 5012?
A. ISDN
B. Console
C. Serial WAN
D. 10/100 Ethernet
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following routers supports version 2.41 router code?
A. 5231
B. 5232
C. 5640
D. 5680
Answer: B

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NO.3 True or False: The RPU can be hot swapped.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

3COM   3M0-200   certification 3M0-200

NO.4 What kind of modules does the Router 5232 use?
A. SICs only
B. MIMs only
C. SICs and MIMs
D. SICs and FICs
Answer: B

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NO.5 True or False: The Flexible Interface Cards (FICs) in the Router 6040 can be hot
swapped.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: IIA-CCSA
Nom d'Examen: IIA (Certification in Control Self-Assessment)
Questions et réponses: 270 Q&As

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NO.1 Principles relevant to profession of internal auditing and rules of conduct that describe their
behaviors are the components of:
A. Auditing Reviews
B. Internal Auditing Profession
C. Auditing Standards
D. Institute of Internal Auditors
Answer: D

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NO.2 When internal auditors establishes trust and thus provides the basis for reliance on their
judgment, this refers to:
A. Veracity
B. Authenticity
C. Integrity
D. Accuracy
Answer: C

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NO.3 In traditional approach, evaluating risks and controls were done by auditors and in control
self-assessment approach it is done by work teams.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following is NOT the rule of integrity?
A. Perform duty with honesty and responsibility.
B. Observe law and make disclosures expected by law.
C. Knowingly engage in acts that are discreditable to the organization.
D. Respect to and contribute to the legitimate objectives of the organization.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following is Correct?
A. Internal auditing is an independent, objective assurance and consulting activity designed to add
value and improve an organization's operations.
B. Take guidelines to analyst conflicts of internal auditing.
C. Required orientation and continuing education regarding audits.
D. Assets are safeguards for internal audits.
Answer: A

IIA examen   IIA-CCSA   IIA-CCSA

NO.6 In traditional approach, objectives used were of management's and in control selfassessment
approach it is of work teams'.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following is NOT the purpose of an organization that uses self-assessment to
have a formal, documented process that allows management and work teams to participate in a
structured manner?
A. Identifying risk factors and significant exposures.
B. Accessing the control processes that do not mitigate or manage those risks.
C. Developing action plans to reduce risks to acceptable levels.
D. Determining the likelihood of, or assisting in, the achievement of business objectives.
Answer: B

IIA   IIA-CCSA   IIA-CCSA

NO.8 A methodology that can be used by managers and internal auditors to assess the adequacy of
an organization's risk management and control processes is called:
A. Control self-assessment
B. Control certifications
C. Managerial control
D. Risk control
Answer: A

IIA   IIA-CCSA examen   IIA-CCSA

NO.9 The purpose of Control self-assessment is:
A. to make analysis through interviews
B. to find report issued by auditors
C. through which internal control effectiveness is examined and assessed
D. to focus on policies and procedures that are strategy compliance
Answer: C

IIA   IIA-CCSA   IIA-CCSA   certification IIA-CCSA

NO.10 Which of the following is Correct?
A. Internal audit can focus on validating the evaluation conclusions produced by controlself
assessment.
B. controlling can focus on validating the evaluation conclusions produced by controlself assessment.
C. Internal audit can focus on resource and budgetary produced by control-self assessment.
D. Internal audit can focus on better risk assessment produced by control-self assessment.
Answer: A

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NO.11 To disclose all material facts known to internal auditors that if not disclosed, may distort the
reporting of activities under review, this one of the rules of:
A. Objectivity
B. Integrity
C. Confidentiality
D. Expert judgment
Answer: A

IIA   IIA-CCSA   IIA-CCSA   IIA-CCSA

NO.12 Competency refers to:
A. External auditors apply the knowledge, skills and experience needed in the performance of
internal auditing services.
B. Internal auditors apply the knowledge, skills and experience needed in the performance of
internal auditing services.
C. Reduce or prevent manufacturing defects
D. Provide information about the process capability and maturity with standards.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Internal auditors have which following four principles to uphold and apply.
A. Integrity, Objectivity, Control and Confidentiality
B. Integrity, Objectivity, Confidentiality and Competency
C. Reliability, Objectivity, Timeliness and Competency
D. Integrity, Objectivity, Discretion and Expertise
Answer: B

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NO.14 The entire objectives-risks-controls infrastructures of an organization are subject to greater
monitoring and continuous improvements due to:
A. Accountability for control
B. Measuring methodology
C. Evaluation methodology
D. Self-assessment methodology
Answer: D

IIA   certification IIA-CCSA   certification IIA-CCSA   IIA-CCSA examen   certification IIA-CCSA

NO.15 Which of the following is Correct?
A. In traditional approach, reporting was done by work teams and in control selfassessment
approach it is done by auditors.
B. In traditional approach, reporting was done by auditors and in control self-assessment approach
it is done by work teams.
C. In traditional approach, setting business objectives were done by auditors and in control
self-assessment approach it is done by management.
D. In traditional approach, accessing risks were done by auditors and in control selfassessment
approach it is also done by auditors.
Answer: B

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ICYB dernières questions d'examen certification IASSC et réponses publiés

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Code d'Examen: ICYB
Nom d'Examen: IASSC (IASSC Certified Lean Six Sigma Yellow Belt)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following would likely not be a CTQ (Critical-to-Quality) for the purchase of a
product?
A. Functionality
B. Durability
C. Dependability
D. None
Answer: D

IASSC   ICYB   ICYB examen

NO.2 In the expression Y = f(Xn) Y , the output, is the ___________ variable and Xn, the inputs, are
the
__________ variables.
A. Independent, dependent
B. Individual, multiple
C. Sole, multiple
D. Dependent, independent
Answer: D

certification IASSC   certification ICYB   ICYB

NO.3 The DMAIC approach to problem solving stands for Define, __________, Analyze, Improve and
Control.
A. Manage
B. Measure
C. Memorize
D. Manipulate
Answer: B

IASSC   ICYB   ICYB

NO.4 When a process has proven itself to function at a Six Sigma level this means there are less than
________ defects per million opportunities.
A. 1.7
B. 2.6
C. 3.4
D. 10
Answer: C

IASSC   ICYB   ICYB   ICYB

NO.5 The ROI for a project is a measurement metric that stands for Return on Investment and is one
of
the methods used to measure the success of a Lean Six Sigma project.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

IASSC   ICYB   certification ICYB   certification ICYB   ICYB   ICYB examen

NO.6 Voice of the Customer is a Lean Six Sigma technique to determine the ___________ attributes
of
a product or service.
A. Desirable
B. Beneficial
C. Critical-to-Quality
D. Preferred
Answer: C

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NO.7 Six Sigma refers to a process whose output has at least 95% of its data points within 6
Standard
Deviations from the Mean.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

IASSC examen   ICYB   ICYB

NO.8 When we assess the Voice of the Customer we are attempting to determine the gaps in our
processes between “what is” and __________________.
A. “What isn’t”
B. “What will make money”
C. “What will cost less”
D. “What should be”
Answer: D

certification IASSC   ICYB   ICYB

NO.9 Training cost is $3,000 and a project required an initial investment of $12,000. If the project
yields
monthly savings of $1,800 beginning after 3 months, what is the payback period in months (before
money costs and taxes)?
A. 4.17
B. 8.33
C. 11.33
D. 28.28
Answer: C

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NO.10 Benefits and working conditions would be primarily the concern of which of the following?
A. Voice of the Customer
B. Voice of the Employee
C. Voice of the Business
D. Voice of the Process
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: CCD-410
Nom d'Examen: Cloudera (Cloudera Certified Developer for Apache Hadoop (CCDH))
Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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NO.1 For each intermediate key, each reducer task can emit:
A. As many final key-value pairs as desired. There are no restrictions on the types of those keyvalue
pairs (i.e., they can be heterogeneous).
B. As many final key-value pairs as desired, but they must have the same type as the intermediate
key-value pairs.
C. As many final key-value pairs as desired, as long as all the keys have the same type and all the
values have the same type.
D. One final key-value pair per value associated with the key; no restrictions on the type.
E. One final key-value pair per key; no restrictions on the type.
Answer: E

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NO.2 Can you use MapReduce to perform a relational join on two large tables sharing a key?
Assume
that the two tables are formatted as comma-separated files in HDFS.
A. Yes.
B. Yes, but only if one of the tables fits into memory
C. Yes, so long as both tables fit into memory.
D. No, MapReduce cannot perform relational operations.
E. No, but it can be done with either Pig or Hive.
Answer: A

Cloudera   CCD-410   CCD-410   CCD-410 examen

NO.3 MapReduce v2 (MRv2 /YARN) splits which major functions of the JobTracker into separate
daemons? Select two.
A. Heath states checks (heartbeats)
B. Resource management
C. Job scheduling/monitoring
D. Job coordination between the ResourceManager and NodeManager
E. Launching tasks
F. Managing file system metadata
G. MapReduce metric reporting
H. Managing tasks
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 You need to move a file titled “weblogs” into HDFS. When you try to copy the file, you can’t.
You
know you have ample space on your DataNodes. Which action should you take to relieve this
situation and store more files in HDFS?
A. Increase the block size on all current files in HDFS.
B. Increase the block size on your remaining files.
C. Decrease the block size on your remaining files.
D. Increase the amount of memory for the NameNode.
E. Increase the number of disks (or size) for the NameNode.
F. Decrease the block size on all current files in HDFS.
Answer: C

certification Cloudera   CCD-410   CCD-410
10. Indentify which best defines a SequenceFile?
A. A SequenceFile contains a binary encoding of an arbitrary number of homogeneous Writable
objects
B. A SequenceFile contains a binary encoding of an arbitrary number of heterogeneous Writable
objects
C. A SequenceFile contains a binary encoding of an arbitrary number of WritableComparable
objects, in sorted order.
D. A SequenceFile contains a binary encoding of an arbitrary number key-value pairs. Each key
must be the same type. Each value must be the same type.
Answer: D

Cloudera   certification CCD-410   CCD-410   certification CCD-410

NO.5 In a MapReduce job with 500 map tasks, how many map task attempts will there be?
A. It depends on the number of reduces in the job.
B. Between 500 and 1000.
C. At most 500.
D. At least 500.
E. Exactly 500.
Answer: D

Cloudera   CCD-410   certification CCD-410   CCD-410   CCD-410

NO.6 When is the earliest point at which the reduce method of a given Reducer can be called?
A. As soon as at least one mapper has finished processing its input split.
B. As soon as a mapper has emitted at least one record.
C. Not until all mappers have finished processing all records.
D. It depends on the InputFormat used for the job.
Answer: C

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NO.7 In a large MapReduce job with m mappers and n reducers, how many distinct copy operations
will
there be in the sort/shuffle phase?
A. mXn (i.e., m multiplied by n)
B. n
C. m
D. m+n (i.e., m plus n)
E. E.mn(i.e., m to the power of n)
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which process describes the lifecycle of a Mapper?
A. The JobTracker calls the TaskTracker’s configure () method, then its map () method and finally
its close () method.
B. The TaskTracker spawns a new Mapper to process all records in a single input split.
C. The TaskTracker spawns a new Mapper to process each key-value pair.
D. The JobTracker spawns a new Mapper to process all records in a single file.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Your cluster’s HDFS block size in 64MB. You have directory containing 100 plain text files, each
of
which is 100MB in size. The InputFormat for your job is TextInputFormat. Determine how many
Mappers will run?
A. 64
B. 100
C. 200
D. 640
Answer: C

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Pegasystems meilleur examen PEGACSSA, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: PEGACSSA
Nom d'Examen: Pegasystems (PRPC v5.5 Certified Senior System Architect Exam)
Questions et réponses: 173 Q&As

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NO.1 What does the rollback method do? (Choose Two)
A. Cancels/Withdraws any pending obj-save and obj-delete methods
B. Rollback is not supported by PRPC when using a WAR deployment. The only way you can do a
rollback is by using the compensating actions method
C. Rollback is a way to rollback an object to a previous state using the History instance for a work object
D. Rolls back the deferred stack of operations for the specified page
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 Select the valid modes an Agent can have since PRPC 5.4? (Choose Three)
A. Normal
B. Legacy
C. Standard
D. Advanced
E. Modes are not required to be selected for Agents in PRPC 5.4
Answer: B,C,D

Pegasystems   certification PEGACSSA   PEGACSSA   PEGACSSA examen

NO.3 Which statements in regards to commits in PRPC are false? (Choose Two)
A. All database updates require that the requestor holds a lock on the object
B. The system performs commits automatically when processing for a submit operation of a flow action
completes, for both connector and local flow actions
C. Commit operations can trigger the execution of Declare-Trigger rules
D. Assuming distributed transaction is not configured and the deferred operation list contains operations
for only one database. When the system commits all deferred operations for the requestor, if any of the
writes fail, they all fail
E. The deferred operations will be committed when you use the write-now option with the obj-save
method because this causes a commit to occur
Answer: A,E

Pegasystems   PEGACSSA   PEGACSSA   PEGACSSA   PEGACSSA

NO.4 PegaRULES is installed on a multi-node system, and a copy of the various caches is stored on each
node. Each of these nodes must be updated with rule changes. Which functionality in PRPC manages the
update process? (Choose One)
A. Node-Pulse
B. Rule Cache
C. System-Update
D. System-Pulse
Answer: D

Pegasystems examen   certification PEGACSSA   PEGACSSA   certification PEGACSSA

NO.5 What does the system pulse do? (Choose Three)
A. It is used by PRPC to synchronize changes to the Data-Agent-Schedule instances whenever a
Rule-Agent-Queue instance is modified
B. It invalidates rule caches on a per node basis using entries in the pr_sys_updatescache table
C. It processes changes to the Lucene indexes that support full text searches
D. It synchronizes the lookup list cache deletions and any rule-file-deletes
E. It is used by PRPC to send out information to PAL on a weekly basis so that performance analysis can
be performed over a period of time
Answer: B,C,D

Pegasystems   PEGACSSA   certification PEGACSSA   PEGACSSA

NO.6 Which of the following are virtual memory based caches? (Choose Three)
A. Rule Cache
B. Rules Assembly Cache
C. Rule Resolution Cache
D. Lookup List Cache
E. Static Content Cache
F. Dictionary Cache
Answer: A,B,C

Pegasystems   PEGACSSA examen   certification PEGACSSA   PEGACSSA   PEGACSSA examen

NO.7 Which methods of service integration within PRPC requires the configuration of a listener? (Choose
Two)
A. BPEL
B. HTTP
C. JMS
D. MQ
E. dotNet
Answer: C,D

certification Pegasystems   PEGACSSA   PEGACSSA   certification PEGACSSA

NO.8 A customer implementation necessitates the usage of Message-driven beans. Which of these
platforms can the solution be deployed on? (Choose Two)
A. JBoss (EAR Deployment)
B. WebLogic (WAR Deployment)
C. WebSphere (EAR Deployment)
D. Tomcat (WAR Deployment)
E. All of the above
Answer: A,C

certification Pegasystems   PEGACSSA   PEGACSSA   PEGACSSA examen

NO.9 What purpose and effect does the Obj-Refresh-and-Lock method have? (Choose One)
A. It has no effect if a lock is held and has not expired
B. It will reacquire a lock and will always refresh the contents of the object from the Database
C. If the lock is not held, the method will acquire a lock and always replace the step page contents with
the current values from the database
D. This method has been deprecated as of PRPC 5.3 in support of the Obj-Browse method which handles
refresh and locking automatically
E. This method is highly efficient and will only refresh the object if the content on the clipboard is older
than the current state in the database and will also force lockthe object regardless ofholds the lock
Answer: A

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NO.10 What determines which table a work object is persisted to? (Choose One)
A. The Data-Admin-DB-Table record for the class group the work object belongs to and the access group
the current user belongs to
B. The RuleSet the class belongs, and Data-Admin-DB-Table definitions
C. The Data-Admin-DB-Table record associated to the class group the work object belongs to
D. The RuleSet the class belongs to
Answer: C

Pegasystems examen   PEGACSSA   PEGACSSA   PEGACSSA

NO.11 The BLOB is stored in the pzPVStream column of a table and contains the data associated with the
instance. Which two statements are false? (Choose Two)
A. Since it is a column in a table in a database, you can extract the BLOB and use it in another system
B. The BLOB contains the same clear text xml you see when clicking the rule data or the View XML option
in the clipboard
C. The PzPVStream
can be eliminated by use of simple tables (those without embedded pages and
page lists)
D. The BLOB enables a single table to store complex data structures that would normally require multiple
tables in a normalized database
Answer: A,B

Pegasystems   PEGACSSA   certification PEGACSSA

NO.12 When a rule executes what is really executed.? (Choose One)
A. XML which is stored in the BLOB
B. Java code which is compiled from the XML stored in the BLOB
C. A class file which is stored in the BLOB
D. A serialized java object which is stored in the BLOB
Answer: B

certification Pegasystems   PEGACSSA   certification PEGACSSA

NO.13 A PRPC installation has 3 nodes. An Agent rule has a single agent listed which takes data from an
external system. It would cause contention issues if it ran on more than one node. What is the
recommended way to ensure the agent only runs in one cluster? (Choose One)
A. Delete the Agent schedule on two nodes
B. Disable the Agent schedule on two of the nodes, either from the Agent Schedule rule form or using the
System Management Application
C. Disable the master agent on two nodes
D. In your Agent activity call a decision table to verify host name of the system (application)
Answer: B

Pegasystems   PEGACSSA examen   PEGACSSA examen

NO.14 Why does PRPC create a Data-Agent-Queue instance when you create a Rule-Agent-Queue instance?
(Choose One)
A. Data-Agent-Queue instances are not locked so they allow you to control the behavior of Agents in a
locked RuleSet at runtime
B. Data-Agent-Queue instances are created by PRPC to support the new Queue For Agent functionality
which was provided since PRPC v5.4
C. Data-Agent-Queue instances are created automatically by PRPC whenever the Queue-For-Agent
method is used in an activity step to queue work for the Agent
D. Data-Agent-Queue instances are data instances which are used by the Queue Manager functionality to
allow for concurrent access to a queued piece of work by agents running on multiple nodes
E. Data-Agent-Queue instances represent the master definition of PRPC agents and have been
deprecated as of PRPC v5.4 in favor of using Rule-Agent-Queue
Answer: A

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NO.15 What four steps must be taken to unit test a connector within a flow when the target interface/system is
not yet available? (Choose Four)
A. Create a Simulation activity
B. Set the connector to simulate in the Simulation data instance and specify the activity
C. Use Tracer and set a breakpoint
D. Define a Connect Simulation instance
E. Test the flow with simulation enabled
F. Create a new Integrator task
Answer: A,B,D,E

Pegasystems examen   PEGACSSA   PEGACSSA examen

NO.16 PRPC can be installed using a WAR or EAR configuration. Which of the following does NOT require an
EAR configuration? (Choose One)
A. JMS message services support need to be provided
B. Support for two-phase commits is required
C. Support for EJB services need to be provided
D. J2EE security is required
E. JSR-94 support is required
Answer: E

Pegasystems   PEGACSSA   certification PEGACSSA   PEGACSSA

NO.17 Which statement best describes the Rules Assembly Cache? (Choose One)
A. The Rules Assembly Cache is a disk based cache that stores the generated XML and resulting class
files, post compilation since what finally gets executed is XML, not java code
B. The Rules Assembly Cache is a memory based cache that reduces PegaRULES database traffic as it
contains copies of rules recently accessed or recently updated by developers
C. The Rules Assembly Cache is a memory based cache that allows Process Commander to rapidly
identify compiled Java CLASS files that correspond to compiled and assembled rules
D. The Rules Assembly Cache is a memory based cache used by PRPC to feed the Instance Cache as
the Instance Cache is the instance of a given rule for which code has been generated
Answer: C

Pegasystems   PEGACSSA   PEGACSSA   certification PEGACSSA   PEGACSSA

NO.18 Where can you view the contents of the Rule Instance Cache? (Choose One)
A. Using the SMA you can view the contents of the instance cache which are displayed in the form of an
Excel file
B. Using the Developer Portal you can view the contents of the instance cache which are displayed in the
form of an excel file and is accessed from the tools > instance cache menu
C. By viewing the XML files from the TEMPDIR\PRGenJava\XML directory
D. By viewing the XML files from the pzInsKey column by using JDBC code
Answer: A

Pegasystems   certification PEGACSSA   PEGACSSA

NO.19 Which statement is true regarding how locking works with covers? (Choose One)
A. By default, the cover does not get locked when you open a covered object, but this is configurable
B. By default, the cover is locked when you open a covered object, but this is configurable
C. The cover must always be locked when working on the cover or one of its covered work objects
because updates occur on the cover throughout processing of the covered work objects
D. Cover object locking is identical to that of other work objects, in that it is only locked when it is opened
by a requestor
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which one of the following statements is true regarding the PRPC threading model? (Choose One)
A. PRThreads are similar to Java threads and the types include STANDARD, DEVELOPER, and
OPENPORTAL
B. A PRThread is essentially a namespace which allows a Requestor to have separate clipboard pages
that do not interact with each other
C. Multiple PRThreads can be executed concurrently depending on whether multi-threading is enabled
D. All of the above
Answer: B

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