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Code d'Examen: HP0-P11
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP Integrity Entry-Level Server Techonlogies)
Questions et réponses: 205 Q&As

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NO.1 What are the characteristics of HP standard warranty protection? (Select two.)
A. parts and labor
B. software support
C. installation support
D. committed repair times
E. protection against manufacturer defect
Answer: AE

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NO.2 Which type of internal storage controller is used in an Integrity rx3600 system?
A. dual channel Ultra320
B. dual channel Serial ATA (SATA)
C. six channel Serial Attached SCSI (SAS)
D. dual channel Serial Attached SCSI (SAS)
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which statement best describes HP Onsite Agent's Reference Set (OARS)?
A. It is an online tool used to retrieve information regarding HP management agents.
B. It is a CD-ROM based tool used to retrieve information regarding HP management agents.
C. It is a CD-ROM based tool used to retrieve current service and support information on HP hardware
products.
D. It is an online tool used to retrieve information regarding current service and support information on HP
hardware products.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Your customer just bought a new Integrity rx6600 server equipped with PCI-X 2.0 slots. The customer
wants to know if this server can use their existing PCI-X 1.0 adapter. How will you answer this question?
A. Yes, but an extended driver is required.
B. Yes, but only if a special repeater is used
C. No, PCI-X and PCI-X 2.0 are not compatible
D. Yes, PCI-X 2.0 is backward-compatible with PCI-X 1.0
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which benefits do HP Care Pack Services provide beyond the HP Standard Warranties? (Select two.)
A. software support
B. committed response and repair time
C. support for default configuration only
D. support for customer proprietary applications
E. hardware protection against manufacturer defect
Answer: AB

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NO.6 Which of the HP Deployment Services provides consulting, design, implementation, and thermal
analysis?
A. Migration Services
B. Installation Services
C. Relocation Services
D. Data Center Services
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which chipset is used in an Integrity rx3600 server?
A. zx2
B. zx1
C. sx2000
D. sx1000
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which resources would you use to determine if a specific host bus adapter is compatible with an
Integrity rx3600 server running OpenVMS? (Select two.)
A. HP Active Answers
B. HP Server Website
C. HP Product Bulletin
D. HP Ordering and Configuration Guide
Answer: CD

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NO.9 Which high availability features are available on an Integrity rx2620 server? (Select two.)
A. Hot Plug PCI-Express slots
B. N+2 hot swap cooling
C. support for RAID memory
D. dynamic processor resilience
E. online memory page deallocation
Answer: DE

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NO.10 A new firmware version is available for the rx6600 server. How do you display the current version of
your system to determine if an update is required?
A. Execute the info bcfg command from the EFI shell.
B. Execute the id command from the MP command menu.
C. Review the System Configuration menu from the EFI Boot Manager menu.
D. Review the System Overview from the EFI Boot Manager menu.
Answer: D

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NO.11 What is the maximum internal storage capacity supported by an Integrity rx4640 equipped with 300GB
drives?
A. 300GB
B. 600GB
C. 900GB
D. 1.2TB
Answer: B

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NO.12 A Management Processor must be installed in an Integrity rx1620 server before you can load which
operating system?
A. Linux
B. HP-UX
C. Windows
D. OpenVMS
Answer: C

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NO.13 Identify two features of integrated Lights-Out ( iLO) Advanced Pack. (Select two.)
A. remote firmware update
B. SSH encryption support for secure access to iLO
C. graphical console for remote access from any location
D. command line and scripting interface for configuration and maintenance
E. iLO group actions for managing multiple system with HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM)
Answer: BE

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NO.14 What is maximum amount of memory supported by an Integrity rx1620 equipped with a zx1 chipset
and 2GB DIMMs?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32
Answer: C

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NO.15 Your customer is looking for a Integrity server with a minimum of two PCI-X slots supporting a transfer
rate of 2.1GB/s. Which system would you recommend?
A. rx1620
B. rx3600
C. rx2620
D. rx4640
Answer: B

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NO.16 Click the Exhibit button.
Which number represents zx2 MIO?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: A

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NO.17 Identify two features of the zx1 chipset. (Select two.)
A. It uses the zx1 IOA chip to support PCI Express.
B. It uses the zx1 IOA chip to support PCI and PCI-X.
C. It decreases the memory latency with the zx1 SME chip.
D. It increases the memory capacity with the zx1 SME chip.
E. It provides two frontside buses to connect Itanium CPUs.
Answer: BD

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NO.18 What is the maximum internal storage capacity supported by an Integrity rx2620 server equipped with
300GB drives?
A. 300GB
B. 600GB
C. 900GB
D. 1.2TB
Answer: C

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NO.19 Your customer's data center has HP Integrity servers running several virtual machines. Which software
should you use as a central point of management for these virtual machines?
A. HP Systems Insight Manager
B. HP Integrity Essentials Capacity Advisor
C. HP Integrity Essentials Virtualization Manager
D. HP Integrity Essentials Global Workload Manager
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which statements explain the difference between the Itanium 2 9M and the mx2 processors? (Select
two.)
A. Itanium mx2 offers more Level 3 cache.
B. Itanium 2 9M offers more Level 3 cache.
C. Itanium mx2 is the upgrade path from Itanium 2 9M.
D. Itanium mx2 supports two processors on one socket.
E. Itanium 2 9M supports two processors on one socket.
Answer: BD

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NO.21 Which HP service provides small and medium businesses with tape backup solutions ?
A. Recover-All Service
B. Electronic Vaulting Service
C. Ultimate Business Protection
D. Data Protector Express Service
Answer: C

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NO.22 How are the resources of an Integrity system running HP-UX assigned within Process Resource
Manager? (Select two.)
A. based on the file /opt/wlm/bin/wlmpard
B. based on individual users or user groups
C. based on the number of CPUs available
D. based on the CPU priority
E. based on the application
Answer: BE

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NO.23 Which of the Premium Hardware/Software Support services covers HP products and selected
multi-vendor hardware and software 24x7?
A. Proactive 24
B. Support Plus
C. Critical Service
D. Support Plus 24
Answer: D

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NO.24 You need to install virtual machines on an Integrity rx1620 server with a single processor installed.
What is the maximum number of virtual machines that you can install on this server?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 20
D. 25
Answer: C

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NO.25 Which HP Integrity Essentials product provides unified virtualization and management of physical and
virtual servers?
A. Capacity Advisor
B. Virtualization Manager (VMMgr)
C. global Workload Manager (gWLM)
D. Virtual Machine Management Pack (VMM)
Answer: B

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NO.26 Which benefit does the HP CarePack Service provide to your customer?
A. prevents downtime
B. committed response time
C. HP warranty service consultation
D. protection against manufacturer defects
Answer: B

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NO.27 A customer wants to install several rx2660 and he is worried about the cooling in his server room.
What value located on the HP Quickspecs page refers to heat?
A. Watt
B. BTUs/hour
C. Volt
D. Amp
Answer: B

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NO.28 Where can you find HP Support Matrices for HP I/O adapters that show which systems support the
adapter and which firmware and drivers are required?
A. docs.hp.com
B. HP Product Bulletins page
C. HP Storage Works sizing tool
D. HP Sales Builder for Windows
Answer: A

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NO.29 HP Systems Insight Manager can run on which platforms?
A. Linux, HP-UX, OpenVMS, Windows
B. HP-UX, Linux, OpenVMS
C. HP-UX, Linux, Windows
D. Windows, OpenVMS, Linux
Answer: C

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NO.30 What is the supported Virtual Server Environment (VSE) solution for Integrity rx2620 servers?
A. hard partitions
B. virtual partitions
C. resource partitions
D. Integrity Virtual Machine (VM)
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: HP0-M16
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP Quick Test Professional 9.2 Software)
Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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NO.1 Where do you set the action iterations for a specified action?
A. Action Settings
B. Action Properties
C. Action Run Settings
D. Action Call Properties
Answer: D

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NO.2 When a procedure is created in the Function Library editor, what is the extension on the file?
A. .INI
B. .TXT
C. .QFL
D. .VBS
Answer: C

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NO.3 In which command can you associate a function library to a test?
A. Run Options
B. Test Settings
C. View Options
D. Function Definition Generator
Answer: B

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NO.4 In Test Settings ->Run the Data Table iteration options are for which data sheet?
A. Local
B. Global
C. Run-time Data Table
D. Design-time Data Table
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which method for the DataTable utility object will allow you to retrieve information from the Data Table
during a test run?
A. Value
B. Import
C. GetCell
D. GetValue
Answer: A

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NO.6 Where do you mark an action as reusable?
A. Action Settings
B. Action Properties
C. Action Run Settings
D. Action Call Properties
Answer: B

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NO.7 What are the categories in the Step Generator?
A. Object, Operation, Value
B. Library, Built-in, Local Script
C. Operation, Arguments, Return Value
D. Test Objects, Utility Objects, Functions
Answer: D

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NO.8 If you have a Virtual Object Collection stored on your machine, and you don't want to use it, what must
you do?
A. Disable Virtual Objects in Test Settings
B. Remove the Collection from your machine
C. Disable Virtual Objects in General Options
D. Remove the Collections from the Resources list
Answer: C

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NO.9 After running a test that contains both input and output parameters, where can the results of an output
parameter be found?
A. Local DataSheet
B. Global DataSheet
C. Run-time Data Table
D. Design-time Data Table
Answer: C

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NO.10 What can you use to handle unpredictable testing exceptions?
A. A Do Loop
B. Recovery Scenario
C. IFHEN statement
D. Selectase statement
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: HP0-081
Nom d'Examen: HP (OpenVMS System Administration )
Questions et réponses: 146 Q&As

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NO.1 VMScluster interconnects serve which purposes? Select TWO.
A.host systems accessing all physical devices and mailboxes
B.host systems accessing storage devices through the MSCP server
C.communication to the master node maintaining the Dedicated CPU Lock Manager
D.direct access to the master node's memory for the shared lock database
E.host systems in the cluster communicating with each other
Correct:B E

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NO.2 To review all the audit events for a specific user, which command is used?
A.ANALYZE/AUDIT/FULL/SINCE=TODAY/USER=ADAMS
SYS$MANAGER:SECURITY.AUDIT$JOURNAL
B.ANALYZE/AUDIT/FULL/ACCOUNT=PAYROLL SYS$MANAGER:SECURITY.AUDIT$JOURNAL
C.ANALYZE/AUDIT/FULL/SELECT=PROCESS=NAME=ADAMS
SYS$MANAGER:SECURITY.AUDIT$JOURNAL
D.ANALYZE/AUDIT/FULL/SELECT=USERNAME=ADAMS
SYS$MANAGER:SECURITY.AUDIT$JOURNAL
Correct:D

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NO.3 Which command correctly terminates the AUDIT_SERVER process?
A.STOP AUDIT_SERVER
B.SET AUDIT /SERVER=FINAL_ACTION=CRASH
C.SET AUDIT /SERVER=EXIT
D.SHUTDOWN AUDIT_SERVER
Correct:C

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NO.4 Which command or qualifier is used to display each line of a command procedure while it is
executing?
A.SET NOON
B.SET VERIFY
C.@procedure/VERIFY
D.@procedure/OUTPUT=file
Correct:B

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NO.5 Which statements are true regarding the default behavior of batch job log files? Select TWO.
A.created in the job owners' SYS$LOGIN directory
B.printed on queue SYS$PRINT and retained
C.printed on queue SYS$PRINT and deleted
D.given the same protection as the batch queue
E.created in the same directory as the command procedure
F.given the same protection as the batch procedure
Correct:A C

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NO.6 After execution of the command: $ DEFINE/JOB LOGNAME SYS$LOGIN:MYFILE.DAT What
happens to the logical name LOGNAME?
A.It is visible to all processes in the same UIC group.
B.It is deassigned automatically on the next image exit.
C.It is placed into the process logical name table.
D.It is visible to all processes in this process tree.
Correct:D

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NO.7 Which installation option performs a new installation on a disk?
A.CURRENT
B.OVERWRITE
C.INITIALIZE
D.PRESERVE
Correct:C

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NO.8 Click the Exhibit button. Which command clears this intrusion record?
A.DELETE /INTRUDER/RECORD=XARA/0003440121:SMITH
B.DELETE /INTRUSION_RECORD "XARA/0003440121:SMITH"
C.DELETE /INTRUSION_RECORD /SOURCE="XARA/0003440121:SMITH"
D.SET AUDIT /DELETE /INTRUSION_RECORD "XARA/0003440121:SMITH"
Correct:B

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NO.9 Assuming patch kit DEC-AXPVMS-VMS732_SYS-V0600--4.PCSI is the latest patch installed,
which statements are true? Select TWO.
A.PRODUCT ERASE * will remove all existing patches
B.PRODUCT UNDO will remove the patch if it was installed with the /SAVE_RECOVERY_DATA option.
C.@SYS$UPDATE:VMSINSTAL REMOVE will remove the patch if it was installed with the
/SAVE_RECOVERY_DATA option.
D.PRODUCT DELETE RECOVERY_DATA /ALL will erase any existing undo data.
E.PRODUCT REMOVE_UPDATE will remove the patch if it was installed with the
/SAVE_RECOVERY_DATA option.
Correct:B D

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NO.10 What is the command to specify that DECwindows client programs use node XARA as the
DECwindows server, running over DECnet protocol?
A.DEFINE DECW$DISPLAY XARA::
B.SET DISPLAY/CREATE/NODE=XARA
C.CREATE/DISPLAY/NODE=XARA/PROTOCOL=DECNET
D.SET DECWINDOWS/NODE=XARA/TRANSPORT=DECNET
Correct:B

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NO.11 What is the lexical function used to return accounting, status, and identification information for
a process?
A.F$USER
B.F$GETJPI
C.F$GETJOB
D.F$PROCESS
Correct:B

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NO.12 Which command displays the LURT (License Unit Requirement Table) entry for an OpenVMS
node? There is more than one correct answer. Select ONE.
A.SHOW LICENSE /LURT
B.LICENSE LIST /TABLE
C.SHOW LICENSE /CHARGE_TABLE
D.LICENSE LIST /MINIMUM_UNITS
E.SHOW CPU /UNIT_REQUIREMENT
F.SHOW LICENSE /UNIT_REQUIREMENT
Correct:A B C D E F

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NO.13 By default, which file stores the system audit records?
A.SYS$MANAGER:OPERATOR.LOG
B.SYS$MANAGER:AUDIT_SERVER.AUDIT$JOURNAL
C.SYS$MANAGER:ACCOUNTNG.DAT
D.SYS$MANAGER:SECURITY.AUDIT$JOURNAL
Correct:D

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NO.14 To what does the term "working set" refer?
A.processes that are currently residing in the system's balance set
B.virtual pages that are mapped by a process that is in the CUR state
C.virtual pages that are currently valid in the global page table
D.virtual pages that a process can access without generating a page fault
Correct:D

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NO.15 Based on the message format, "%facility-s-identification, text", where "s" represents the
severity; what would a severity level of "E" represent?
A.The command may have performed some, but not all, of your request.
B.The output or program result is incorrect, but the system may attempt to continue execution.
C.The output or program result is incorrect. The system cannot continue to execute the request.
D.The system has performed your request. The message provides information about the process.
Correct:B

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NO.16 Which command deletes a logical name TROLL from the GROUP logical name table?
A.DELETE/LOGICAL TROLL
B.DEASSIGN/GROUP TROLL
C.DELETE/TABLE=GROUP TROLL
D.DEASSIGN/TABLE=GROUP TROLL
Correct:B

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NO.17 What is the purpose of security auditing?
A.prevent hackers from penetrating the system
B.analyze system usage and project future growth trends
C.analyze and record system use to detect attempts to compromise system security
D.gather system user statistics to enable system managers to charge for resource consumption
Correct:C

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NO.18 What is the difference between a buffered I/O (BIO) and a direct I/O (DIO)?
A.The user must provide a buffer to perform a BIO, but not for a DIO.
B.BIOs are substantially faster than DIOs, but consume more memory.
C.BIO data is copied to/from a system buffer before/after performing the I/O.
D.Most I/Os to terminals are DIOs; all I/Os to disks are BIOs.
Correct:C

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NO.19 Which statements about the swapfile are true? Select TWO.
A.The swapfile will be used by the modified page writer when the pagefile is full.
B.When a process is swapped out of memory, it is written to the swapfile.
C.The swapfile must exist on the boot device, and be at least the size of WSMAX.
D.The swapfile is optional, and may be installed on a disk other than the boot device.
E.The Swapper process writes pages from the modified page list to the swapfile.
Correct:B D

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NO.20 What are benefits of VMS clustering? Select THREE.
A.non-stop processing
B.massively parallel computing
C.single security domain
D.transparent access to storage between HP-UX, OpenVMS, and Linux systems
E.shared storage across multiple systems
F.cross-node automatic process failover
G.high availability
Correct:C E G

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Code d'Examen: HP0-A02
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP-UX 11i v3 Advanced System Administration)
Questions et réponses: 152 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the first step when creating an NIS Master server?
A. nisinit -a
B. update all ASCII source files
C. /sbin/init.d/ypinit start
D. /sbin/init.d/nis.server start
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the result of the following command? find / -atime +14 -size +1000c -exec rm -i {} \;
A. Search for all files more than 14 hours old that are larger than 1000 bytes. Prompt the user to delete
each file found that matches the search criteria.
B. Search for all files more than two weeks old that are larger than 10 characters. Prompt the user to
delete each file found that matches the search criteria.
C. Search for all files more than two weeks old that are larger than 1000 bytes. Prompt the user to delete
each file found that matches the search criteria.
D. Search for all files more than two weeks old that are larger than 1000 characters. Prompt the user to
rename each file found that matches the search criteria.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What are the benefits of IPQoS? (Select two.)
A. policy-based bandwidth provisioning
B. automatic configuration of IP interfaces
C. prioritize only inbound network bandwidth
D. prioritize only outbound network bandwidth
E. prioritize both outbound and inbound network bandwidth
Answer: AD

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NO.4 The execution scripts for rwhod and xntpd are configured in which configuration file?
A. /etc/rc.config.d/netconf
B. /etc/rc.config.d/mailsvrs
C. /etc/rc.config.d/namesvrs
D. /etc/rc.config.d/netdaemons
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which command uses NTP to keep the local system clock in sync with other nodes on the network?
A. /usr/sbin/ntpsync
B. /usr/sbin/ntpdate
C. /usr/sbin/ntpscan
D. /usr/sbin/ntpd.conf
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which feature allows concurrent access of NFS and CIFS clients on a file without corrupting it?
A. NFS v4
B. Unified File Cache
C. Memory-Mapped Access
D. CIFS File System Module (CFSM)
Answer: D

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NO.7 On an HP-UX system, an empty cron.deny file exists but there is not a cron.allow file. Who can use
cron in this situation?
A. nobody
B. only root
C. everybody
D. only system accounts
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which features are supported by the Red Hat Directory Server? (Select three.)
A. ADSI API
B. NTLM authentication
C. multi-master replication
D. replication with Novell eDirectory
E. X.509 certificate based authentication
F. secure communications using SSL/TLS
Answer: CEF

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NO.9 Which program initially starts rpcbind at boot?
A. /sbin/init.d/net
B. /sbin/init.d/named
C. /sbin/init.d/nfs.core
D. /sbin/init.d/rpcbind
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which variable holds the number of arguments passed into a function inside of a KSH script?
A. $!
B. $?
C. $#
D. $$
E. $0
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which command performs formatting of binary data generated by nettl?
A. nroff -e
B. netformat -a
C. nettl -l filename
D. netfmt -f filename
Answer: D

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NO.12 Click the Exhibit button. What is the output after executing this script?
A. Last
B. First
C. Third
D. Second
Answer: C

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NO.13 When a connection is established with inetd for a service, inetd runs the appropriate server specified in
the /etc/inetd.conf file and waits for other connections. Which HP-UX application can be used in addition
to inetd to verify whether a host or network can execute a service provided in inetd.conf?
A. IPsec
B. IPfilter
C. TCP wrappers
D. Security Advisor
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which feature allows the LDAP-UX client to retrieve user information from LDAP Directory Servers that
do not support the posixAccount objectclass (RFC2307)?
A. SASL
B. attribute mapping
C. configuration profile
D. service search descriptors
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which command talks directly to the sendmail daemon and other SMTP servers to verify connectivity?
A. telnet host 23
B. telnet host 80
C. telnet host 25
D. telnet host 110
Answer: C

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NO.16 Click the Exhibit button. The Exhibit shows one possible output of a processor information command.
Which command can be executed to get processor information from an Integrity system running HP-UX?
A. procinfo
B. cpu_info
C. machinfo
D. cpuinfo -v
E. procinfo -v
Answer: C

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NO.17 What is the configuration file for the HP CIFS Server product?
A. /etc/opt/samba/smb.conf
B. /etc/opt/samba/cifs.conf
C. /etc/opt/samba/swat.conf
D. /etc/opt/samba/samba.conf
Answer: A

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NO.18 Neighbor discovery is a component of which protocol?
A. IPv6
B. ARP
C. OSPF
D. DHCP
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which commands create a file with paths to all files named bob and display the files on the screen as
they are identified? (Select two.)
A. find / -name bob | tee list
B. find / -name bob | tail -f >list
C. find / -name bob | tail list >list
D. find / -name bob &>list tail -f list
E. find / -name bob >list & tail -f list
Answer: AE

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NO.20 Which command prints out the network routing table?
A. netstat
B. nwmgr
C. ifconfig
D. lanscan
E. lanadmin
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: HP0-082
Nom d'Examen: HP (OpenVMS Advanced System Administration.Performance. Support)
Questions et réponses: 115 Q&As

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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button.
Which statement regarding the system parameters is true?
A. GBLPAGFIL is too small.
B. PAGEDYN should be reduced.
C. NPAGEDYN should be increased.
D. LCKMGRDYN should be increased.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which utility must be invoked after replacing a Fibre Channel tape device?
A. SANCP
B. INSTALL
C. SYSMAN
D. SYSGEN
E. WWIDMGR
Answer: C

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NO.3 What improvement results from issuing the following command?
SET RMS_DEFAULT/QUERY_LOCK=DISABLE
A. read performance for all files
B. read performance for shared files
C. read and write performance for all files
D. read and write performance for shared files
Answer: B

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NO.4 A customer requires a low-end OpenVMS cluster using Fibre Channel and shared storage.
Which configuration is the most appropriate solution for a limited budget?
A. two servers with two Host Bus Adapters and two network cards each and an MSA1000
B. two servers with one Host Bus Adapter and two network cards each, one Fibre Channel SAN switch,
one pair of HSV100 controllers and a network switch
C. two servers with two Host Bus Adapters and two network cards each, two Fibre Channel SAN switches,
two pairs of HSV100 controllers and a network switch
D. two servers with one Host Bus Adapter and one network card each, one Fibre Channel SAN switch
and one pair of HSV100 controllers
Answer: D

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
Which statement is true?
A. Paged Dynamic Memory is badly fragmented.
B. Nonpaged Dynamic Memory should be increased.
C. Lock Manager Dynamic Memory should be increased.
D. Lookaside space is too small for optimal performance.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which process scheduling priority is a real-time priority?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 64
Answer: C

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NO.7 What does the GALAXY system parameter do?
A. defines the number of instances in a hard partition
B. controls participation of the instance in a GALAXY memory sharing set
C. defines the number of CPUs that are assigned to an instance
D. limits the amount of shared memory in a GALAXY community
Answer: B

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NO.8 A privileged kernel mode program is designed to operate on an SMP system. Which synchronization
technique coordinates access to shared memory management structures?
A. paging
B. spinlocks
C. mailboxes
D. event flags
Answer: B

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NO.9 Why is the Dedicated CPU Lock Manager enabled?
A. to monitor lock remastering
B. to increase the availability of CPUs in an SMP system
C. to decrease the number of resources on a CPU specific lock tree
D. to reduce MP Synchronization time on systems with heavy lock activity
Answer: D

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NO.10 An OpenVMS Integrity server was added to an existing OpenVMS Alpha cluster, sharing the existing
SYSUAF.DAT. Users running a migrated application on the Integrity server experience occasional
problems related to UAF quotas.
Which group of quotas is most likely responsible?
A. BIOLM, DIOLM, TQELM
B. ENQLM, FILLM, JTQUOTA
C. BYTLM, PGFLQUO, WSQUO
D. ASTLM, PRCLM, WSEXTENT
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which LINK qualifier will prevent an image from being installed with privilege?
A. /SYSTEM
B. /NOSYSLIB
C. /TRACEBACK
D. /SECTION_BINDING=CODE
Answer: C

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NO.12 Click the Exhibit button.
Which term best describes the OpenVMS cluster shown in the exhibit?
A. fault tolerant
B. non-redundant
C. highly available
D. disaster tolerant
machine with an I/O bottleneck
D. in a non-SMP machine with an I/O bottleneck
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which pair of interconnects supports a multi-site cluster separated by more than 50km?
A. CI and Memory Channel
B. Fibre Channel and Ethernet
C. CI and FDDI
D. Memory Channel and Fibre Channel
Answer: B

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NO.14 Many processes on a system are in RWMPB or RWPFW state. What is a probable cause?
A. Lock requests are stalled.
B. The look-aside lists are full.
C. The page file is full.
D. The paged pool has expanded.
Answer: C

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NO.15 A customer is losing old versions of a data file that must be kept. Which ACE will help to determine the
cause?
A. (IDENTIFIER=AUDIT, ACCESS=R+W+D+C+S)
B. (AUDIT=SECURITY, ACCESS= R+W+D+C+S)
C. (IDENTIFIER=AUDIT, OPTIONS=DEFAULT, ACCESS=R+W+D+C+F)
D. (AUDIT=SECURITY, OPTIONS=DEFAULT, ACCESS= R+W+D+C+F)
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which synchronization mechanism allows cooperating processes to coordinate their access to a
named resource in a clustered environment?
A. mutex
B. spinlock
C. logical names
D. distributed lock manager
Answer: D

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NO.17 Under which condition is enabling Fast Path likely to improve performance?
A. in an SMP machine with the primary CPU saturated
B. in a non-SMP machine with a saturated CPU
C. in an SMP machine with an I/O bottleneck
D. in a non-SMP machine with an I/O bottleneck
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which system parameter restricts the amount of physical memory that can be consumed by the
eXtended File Cache (XFC)?
A. XFC_MAX_CACHE
B. VCC_CACHE_SIZE
C. FILE_CACHE_MAX
D. VCC_MAX_CACHE
Answer: D

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NO.19 Users are reporting that the system is running slower than normal. The information displayed by a
MONITOR MODES command indicates that the INTERRUPT mode usage is much higher than normal.
What is a possible cause?
A. Excessive use of RMS is occurring.
B. The base priority of users has increased.
C. DCL programs are running on the system.
D. There is an increase in distributed lock processing.
Answer: D

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NO.20 Fast Path is enabled on an SMP system, but all I/O operations appear to be using the primary CPU.
Which parameter should be checked?
A. CPU_AFFINITY
B. PREFERRED_CPU
C. IO_PREFER_CPUS
D. PREFERRED_PATH
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: HP0-J18
Nom d'Examen: HP (Implementing HP StorageWorks EVA Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 206 Q&As

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NO.1 Which statement best describes virtual disk leveling?
A.subgrouping drives within a disk group to allow failure separation
B.distributing all user data proportionally across all spindles within a virtual disk
C.distributing all user data proportionally across all spindles within a disk group
D.allocating space per disk group to recover from physical disk failure in that group
ANSWER: C

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NO.2 You set the failure protection level for a disk group with same-sized disks on an Enterprise Virtual Array to
single. What is the effect?
A.One disk is reserved as spare space.
B.Two disks are reserved as spare space.
C.A two-disk equivalent is reserved as spare space.
D.A one-disk equivalent is reserved as spare space.
ANSWER: C

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NO.3 What is a physical segment (PSEG) in the Enterprise Virtual Array context?
A.smallest virtual disk space allocated on a disk drive
B.smallest physical disk space allocated on a disk drive
C.disk space containing information about the selected redundancy level of the virtual disk
D.data portion read from or written to a physical disk before the next physical disk is accessed
ANSWER: B

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NO.4 Which statement is correct about the allocation policy of snapshots?
A.If one snapshot in a disk group is created using allocation on demand, all snapshots in the same disk group
must use allocation on demand.
B.If one snapshot in a virtual disk family is created using allocation on demand, other snapshots in the same
virtual disk family can be fully allocated snapshots.
C.If the first snapshot in a virtual disk family is created using the fully allocated method, all subsequent
snapshots in the same disk group must be fully allocated.
D.If the first snapshot in a virtual disk family is created using allocation on demand, all subsequent snapshots in
the same virtual disk family will use allocation on demand.
ANSWER: D

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NO.5 Which EVA base models include loop switches? (Select two.)
A.EVA4100 2C4D
B.EVA6100 2C4D
C.EVA6100 2C6D
D.EVA8100 2C2D
E.EVA8100 2C8D
ANSWER: CE

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NO.6 You want to add more drives into the cabinet of an EVA6100 with 8 shelves and 56 drives. What is the HP
best practice regarding this?
A.Always add drives into the array in multiples of eight.
B.Set the add disk option to automatic and add the drives.
C.Add all the drives at the same time to minimize disruption to the I/O path.
D.Add the drives into one shelf at a time because the data is stored on all disks in the array and the distribution
of the disks is not important.
ANSWER: A

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NO.7 Which statements are correct about using thin provisioning in an EVA environment? (Select two.)
A.Capacity utilization is increased.
B.Extension of a LUN cannot be automated.
C.Host agents must be installed on servers.
D.LUN shrink is not always supported for EVA.
E.It can be performed within Command View EVA.
ANSWER: AC

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NO.8 You set the failure protection level for a disk group with same-sized disks on an Enterprise Virtual Array to
double. What is the effect?
A.Two disks are reserved as spare space.
B.Four disks are reserved as spare space.
C.A two-disk equivalent is reserved as spare space.
D.A four-disk equivalent is reserved as spare space.
ANSWER: D

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NO.9 Which replication method can cause an overcommit situation? (Select two.)
A.clone
B.Vsnap
C.snapclone
D.fully allocated snapshot
E.demand-allocated snapshot
ANSWER: BE

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NO.10 A disk group member failure occurs with a Vraid5 virtual disk. What happens to the data if the disk group
has assigned spare space and there is also enough available free space?
A.Data from the failed disk are reconstructed into a snapclone.
B.Data from the failed disk are reconstructed into the free space.
C.Data from the failed disk are reconstructed into the default disk group.
D.Data from the failed disk are reconstructed into the allocated spare space.
ANSWER: B

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NO.11 How does releveling occur after the loss of one disk in a 16-member group containing ten 10GB Vraid1
Vdisks?
A.across 10 disks in the group
B.across 14 disks in the group
C.across 15 disks in the group
D.across 16 disks in the group
E.The group does not need to relevel.
ANSWER: B

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NO.12 A Vraid5 virtual disk has been created in a 12-member disk group. What is the result of the loss of one disk?
A.addition of a new Redundant Storage Set
B.reordering of disks in each Redundant Storage Set
C.reduction in the number of Redundant Storage Sets
D.no change in the number of Redundant Storage Sets
ANSWER: C

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NO.13 What are features of FATA disk technology? (Select two.)
A.greater than 80% duty cycle
B.extensive command queueing
C.designed for 24 by 7 availability
D.no native Fibre Channel interface on FATA disks
E.same capacity at similar cost as Fibre Channel-SCSI disks
ANSWER: BC

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NO.14 You have a disk group set to double protection level that contains only Vraid1 virtual disks. What happens
when you have the simultaneous loss of two physical disks from different mirrored pairs within the same
Redundant Storage Set (RSS)?
A.Vraid1 data migrates to Vraid5.
B.The Vraid1 fails and there is data loss.
C.The Vraid1 data from the failed disks are reconstructed.
D.The Vraid1 virtual disk stays in degraded mode and data is preserved.
ANSWER: C

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NO.15 Which statements about mirrorclones are correct? (Select two.)
A.A detached mirrorclone cannot be reattached to its source.
B.If the mirrorclone is in a normalized state, you can only detach it.
C.HP recommends keeping mirrorclones in the same disk group as the source.
D.The redundancy (Vraid) level of a mirrorclone must be the same or higher than the source.
E.A mirrorclone delta restore may be made when the mirrorclone source is also the source for a DR group.
ANSWER: AE

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NO.16 What are components of the EVA 4100/6100/8100 Foundation Service?
A.Pre-Sales Consulting, 2-year hardware support, 2-year phone-in support and update
B.Pre-Sales Consulting, 3-year hardware support, 3-year phone-in support and update
C.Installation and Startup, 2-year hardware support, 2-year phone-in support and update
D.Installation and Startup, 3-year hardware support, 3-year phone-in support and update
ANSWER: C

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NO.17 What is presented to the specified host if you complete the virtual disk presentation sequence in Command
View EVA without specifying a LUN?
A.LUN 0
B.the next available LUN number
C.the highest available LUN number
D.most recently presented LUN number
ANSWER: B

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NO.18 You create a Vraid0 LUN in an EVA with 16 disks consisting of two 8-drive RSS sets. What will happen if a
single disk fails?
A.The LUN will fail even with an RSS configured.
B.The LUN cannot be configured across two RSS sets.
C.The LUN will continue to operate normally due to the redundancy provided by the RSS sets.
D.The LUN will continue to operate at reduced performance while the RSS sets rebuild the lost data.
ANSWER: A

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NO.19 You are preparing to upgrade an EVA5000 2C6D solution to an EVA6100 2C8D solution in a Windows
environment. What must be considered before the installation?
A.New array controllers are 1U higher than old controllers.
B.EVA6100 device switches have a greater installation height.
C.An M5214B enclosure cannot be used with an EVA6100 solution.
D.Different multipath software must be purchased to assure connectivity.
ANSWER: A

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NO.20 What happens to the Vraid5 when two disk drives residing in different Redundant Storage Sets go into the
Failed State simultaneously? (Select two.)
A.The Vraid5 fails and there is data loss.
B.Data on the remaining disk drives are releveled.
C.The data from the failed disk drives are reconstructed.
D.The two failed drives go into the migrating state to preserve the data.
E.The Vraid5 virtual disk stays in degraded mode and the data are preserved.
ANSWER: BC

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Code d'Examen: HP0-Y16
Nom d'Examen: HP (ProCurve Network Immunity Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 88 Q&As

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NO.1 Which statement is true about setting up an action for dynamic remote mirroring?
A. You should configure the mirror source before configuring the action.
B. You should configure the mirror destination before configuring the action.
C. You configure both the mirror source and destination as part of configuring the action.
D. You should configure both the mirror source and destination before configuring the action.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which statement is true about the role that events play in ProCurve NIM?
A. When a particular event occurs, ProCurve NIM executes the corresponding alert.
B. When a particular event occurs, ProCurve NIM executes the corresponding policy.
C. When a particular number of events occur within a set time window, ProCurve NIM triggers the
corresponding alert.
D. When a particular number of events occur within a set time window, ProCurve NIM triggers the
corresponding policy.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What should you do to set up your network infrastructure for remote mirroring?
A. Enable jumbo frames.
B. Enable frame fragmentation.
C. Raise the maximum transmit unit (MTU).
D. Reserve uplink ports for the mirroring session.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which action can help you troubleshoot a policy in realtime from PCM?
A. Port Mirror
B. Notify (Email)
C. Message Dialog
D. Traffic Sampling
Answer: C

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NO.5 What must you do to configure a Port Rate Limit action?
A. Set the rate limit as a percentage.
B. Set the rate limit as a QoS priority value.
C. Set the rate limit as an absolute value in Kbps.
D. Enable the limit, leaving the rate to be determined by the switch configuration.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Click the Exhibit button.
You are configuring a Quarantine VLAN action.
Which area in the exhibit displays settings that allow ProCurve NIM to always place the offender in the
Quarantine VLAN?
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which features are provided in a ProCurve NIM standalone deployment? (Select two.)
A. threat mitigation without the aid of PCM+
B. resetting of TCP sessions when threats are detected
C. signature-based detection of worms and other attacks
D. applying mitigation actions near the source of the threat
E. application of different policies based on the threat's place of origin
Answer: DE

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NO.8 You want to set up different external alerts based on the specific type of threat. Which settings can
help you accomplish this task? (Select two.)
A. Trap ID
B. Severity
C. Description
D. Anomaly ID
E. Violation Count
Answer: AC

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NO.9 How does ProCurve NIM determine the severity level for a security alert?
A. from the violation count for the associated event
B. from the event, and the severity cannot be overridden
C. from the event, unless overridden by the alert configuration
D. from the event for trap events and from the alert configuration for other events
Answer: C

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NO.10 Your company's regulatory compliance group has asked you for a record of changes to the Policy
Manager policies. Which report should you generate?
A. Security Audit
B. Actions by Policy
C. Executed Policies
D. Automation (Policy) History
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which alert can be triggered by SNMP traps sent by ProCurve switches?
A. default External
B. default IP Fanout
C. default IP Spoofing
D. default Virus Throttle
E. default ProCurve SNMP
Answer: D

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NO.12 How does a ProCurve Network Immunity Solution protect a network?
A. It deals with threats from authorized users.
B. It stops unauthorized users from connecting.
C. It customizes users' rights based on their identity.
D. It filters Web content and email while searching for viruses.
Answer: A

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NO.13 What is a feature of anomaly-based threat detection but not signature-based threat detection?
A. detecting worms
B. detecting DoS attacks
C. detecting protocol anomalies
D. detecting undocumented attacks
Answer: D

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NO.14 You want to display and print a list of all events related to the Policy Manager. What should you do?
A. From the Reports menu, select the Policy Events report.
B. In Interconnect Devices, click the Events tab; filter for Policy Manager; click the Print button.
C. From the Reports menu, select the Events report; filter for Policy Manager in the Report Wizard.
D. In Network Management Home, click the Events tab; filter for Policy Manager; click the Print button.
Answer: D

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NO.15 A network already has an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) that is installed between a group of
servers and the rest of the network. Which benefits does ProCurve NIM add in a NIM + IPS deployment?
(Select two.)
A. deep packet inspection
B. signature-based detection
C. remediation of infected endpoints
D. protection for other resources throughout the network
E. applies actions closer to the point of origin of the attack
Answer: DE

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NO.16 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the information shown in the exhibit, what do you know about alerts on the 10.1.1.1 device over the
last five hours? (Note: The orange color corresponds with Major severity.)
A. The device has received only Major alerts.
B. The majority of alerts on the device are Major alerts.
C. The highest severity for an alert on this device is Major.
D. The most recent alert received on the device was a Major alert.
Answer: C

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NO.17 What might indicate that the sensitivity for IP fanout has been set too high?
A. IP Fanout events appear in the Events tab for almost every switch.
B. Although you do not see IP Fanout events, the IP Fanout alert triggers.
C. IP Fanout events appear in the Events tab for one switch but not others.
D. There are no IP Fanout events for days although you have configured an IP Fanout alert.
Answer: A

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NO.18 Click the Exhibit button.
What are reasons to configure the policy settings shown in the exhibit? (Select two.)
A. You want the policy to respond to threats from offenders within this group.
B. You want ProCurve NIM to apply the policy for threats detected in this group.
C. You have set the policy to a source group, so you must set the target group to match.
D. You want to enable dynamic local port mirroring on set ports, which compose this group.
E. The policy action is MAC Lockout, and you want to lock the offender out of the entire group.
Answer: DE

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NO.19 What is a reason to create a custom group for a server zone and set that group as the source for a NIM
policy?
A. Servers handle more mission-critical traffic, so you set less drastic actions.
B. Servers trigger more false positives, so you set the NBAD sensitivities lower.
C. Threats are targeted to servers at all times, so you set the policy to any time.
D. Threats that are targeted to servers are more serious, so you set harsher actions.
Answer: A

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NO.20 How do you configure PCM+ to generate periodic reports?
A. Select the Reports button in the global toolbar.
B. Enable the periodic reports setting in PCM+ Preferences.
C. Configure the schedule in the appropriate Reports Wizard.
D. Create policies with schedule-driven alerts and report actions.
Answer: D

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NO.21 What is the intended purpose of the default traffic sampling action of ProCurve NIM?
A. to prevent ProCurve NIM from triggering false positives
B. to help PCM+/NIM periodically begin to monitor new ports
C. to send traffic for increased analysis to an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
D. to allow ProCurve NIM to take immediate action against the most probable threats
Answer: B

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NO.22 ProCurve NIM was registering few TCP/UDP Fanout events. You have raised the sensitivity, and
many false positive TCP/UDP Fanout events are now triggered throughout the network. What should you
do next? (Select two.)
A. Lower the sensitivity to the previous level.
B. Remove the TCP/UDP alert from all policies.
C. Plan and create a Policy Manager policy to deal with false positive events.
D. Exclude the devices triggering the false positive events from the TCP/UDP fanout.
Answer: AD

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NO.23 Which events can be signs of an unauthorized port scan? (Select two.)
A. Port Anomaly
B. DNS Tunneling
C. TCP/UDP Fanout
D. UDP Protocol Anomaly
E. TCP Protocol Anomaly
Answer: CE

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NO.24 Which misconfiguration on PCM+ causes ProCurve NIM to fail to detect any anomalies in traffic?
A. the wrong sFlow version
B. an incorrect operator password
C. an incorrect manager password
D. an incorrect SNMP community name
Answer: D

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NO.25 By default, which NBAD event will trigger traffic sampling on a port?
A. Duplicate IP
B. Virus Throttle
C. Protocol Anomaly
D. Packet Size Deviation
Answer: D

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NO.26 Click the Exhibit button.
Which port in the exhibit should you select in PCM+ and configure as the mirror destination?
A. 1
B. A6
C. X0
D. B16
E. 25-48
Answer: B

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NO.27 Which threat mitigation action is supported on ProCurve wireless devices?
A. Port Disable
B. MAC Lockout
C. Port Rate Limit
D. Quarantine VLAN
Answer: B

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NO.28 When should the unified NIM + IDS deployment option be used?
A. to take immediate action to protect key resources and also track threats to the source
B. to add threat protection to the features of ProCurve NIM, which include only threat detection
C. to allow ProCurve NIM to mirror suspicious traffic to an external device for additional analysis
D. to protect against threats from wireless devices, which ProCurve NIM is not able to do on its own
Answer: C

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NO.29 From which NBAD event should you often exclude your servers?
A. DNS Tunneling
B. TCP/UDP Fanout
C. Protocol Anomaly
D. Packet Size Deviation
Answer: B

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NO.30 Which tab is added to PCM+ when you install ProCurve NIM?
A. Policy Events
B. Security Audit
C. Event Browser
D. Security Activity
Answer: D

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