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Code d'Examen: HP0-Y16
Nom d'Examen: HP (ProCurve Network Immunity Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 88 Q&As

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NO.1 Which statement is true about setting up an action for dynamic remote mirroring?
A. You should configure the mirror source before configuring the action.
B. You should configure the mirror destination before configuring the action.
C. You configure both the mirror source and destination as part of configuring the action.
D. You should configure both the mirror source and destination before configuring the action.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which statement is true about the role that events play in ProCurve NIM?
A. When a particular event occurs, ProCurve NIM executes the corresponding alert.
B. When a particular event occurs, ProCurve NIM executes the corresponding policy.
C. When a particular number of events occur within a set time window, ProCurve NIM triggers the
corresponding alert.
D. When a particular number of events occur within a set time window, ProCurve NIM triggers the
corresponding policy.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What should you do to set up your network infrastructure for remote mirroring?
A. Enable jumbo frames.
B. Enable frame fragmentation.
C. Raise the maximum transmit unit (MTU).
D. Reserve uplink ports for the mirroring session.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which action can help you troubleshoot a policy in realtime from PCM?
A. Port Mirror
B. Notify (Email)
C. Message Dialog
D. Traffic Sampling
Answer: C

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NO.5 What must you do to configure a Port Rate Limit action?
A. Set the rate limit as a percentage.
B. Set the rate limit as a QoS priority value.
C. Set the rate limit as an absolute value in Kbps.
D. Enable the limit, leaving the rate to be determined by the switch configuration.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Click the Exhibit button.
You are configuring a Quarantine VLAN action.
Which area in the exhibit displays settings that allow ProCurve NIM to always place the offender in the
Quarantine VLAN?
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which features are provided in a ProCurve NIM standalone deployment? (Select two.)
A. threat mitigation without the aid of PCM+
B. resetting of TCP sessions when threats are detected
C. signature-based detection of worms and other attacks
D. applying mitigation actions near the source of the threat
E. application of different policies based on the threat's place of origin
Answer: DE

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NO.8 You want to set up different external alerts based on the specific type of threat. Which settings can
help you accomplish this task? (Select two.)
A. Trap ID
B. Severity
C. Description
D. Anomaly ID
E. Violation Count
Answer: AC

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NO.9 How does ProCurve NIM determine the severity level for a security alert?
A. from the violation count for the associated event
B. from the event, and the severity cannot be overridden
C. from the event, unless overridden by the alert configuration
D. from the event for trap events and from the alert configuration for other events
Answer: C

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NO.10 Your company's regulatory compliance group has asked you for a record of changes to the Policy
Manager policies. Which report should you generate?
A. Security Audit
B. Actions by Policy
C. Executed Policies
D. Automation (Policy) History
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which alert can be triggered by SNMP traps sent by ProCurve switches?
A. default External
B. default IP Fanout
C. default IP Spoofing
D. default Virus Throttle
E. default ProCurve SNMP
Answer: D

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NO.12 How does a ProCurve Network Immunity Solution protect a network?
A. It deals with threats from authorized users.
B. It stops unauthorized users from connecting.
C. It customizes users' rights based on their identity.
D. It filters Web content and email while searching for viruses.
Answer: A

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NO.13 What is a feature of anomaly-based threat detection but not signature-based threat detection?
A. detecting worms
B. detecting DoS attacks
C. detecting protocol anomalies
D. detecting undocumented attacks
Answer: D

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NO.14 You want to display and print a list of all events related to the Policy Manager. What should you do?
A. From the Reports menu, select the Policy Events report.
B. In Interconnect Devices, click the Events tab; filter for Policy Manager; click the Print button.
C. From the Reports menu, select the Events report; filter for Policy Manager in the Report Wizard.
D. In Network Management Home, click the Events tab; filter for Policy Manager; click the Print button.
Answer: D

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NO.15 A network already has an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) that is installed between a group of
servers and the rest of the network. Which benefits does ProCurve NIM add in a NIM + IPS deployment?
(Select two.)
A. deep packet inspection
B. signature-based detection
C. remediation of infected endpoints
D. protection for other resources throughout the network
E. applies actions closer to the point of origin of the attack
Answer: DE

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NO.16 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the information shown in the exhibit, what do you know about alerts on the 10.1.1.1 device over the
last five hours? (Note: The orange color corresponds with Major severity.)
A. The device has received only Major alerts.
B. The majority of alerts on the device are Major alerts.
C. The highest severity for an alert on this device is Major.
D. The most recent alert received on the device was a Major alert.
Answer: C

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NO.17 What might indicate that the sensitivity for IP fanout has been set too high?
A. IP Fanout events appear in the Events tab for almost every switch.
B. Although you do not see IP Fanout events, the IP Fanout alert triggers.
C. IP Fanout events appear in the Events tab for one switch but not others.
D. There are no IP Fanout events for days although you have configured an IP Fanout alert.
Answer: A

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NO.18 Click the Exhibit button.
What are reasons to configure the policy settings shown in the exhibit? (Select two.)
A. You want the policy to respond to threats from offenders within this group.
B. You want ProCurve NIM to apply the policy for threats detected in this group.
C. You have set the policy to a source group, so you must set the target group to match.
D. You want to enable dynamic local port mirroring on set ports, which compose this group.
E. The policy action is MAC Lockout, and you want to lock the offender out of the entire group.
Answer: DE

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NO.19 What is a reason to create a custom group for a server zone and set that group as the source for a NIM
policy?
A. Servers handle more mission-critical traffic, so you set less drastic actions.
B. Servers trigger more false positives, so you set the NBAD sensitivities lower.
C. Threats are targeted to servers at all times, so you set the policy to any time.
D. Threats that are targeted to servers are more serious, so you set harsher actions.
Answer: A

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NO.20 How do you configure PCM+ to generate periodic reports?
A. Select the Reports button in the global toolbar.
B. Enable the periodic reports setting in PCM+ Preferences.
C. Configure the schedule in the appropriate Reports Wizard.
D. Create policies with schedule-driven alerts and report actions.
Answer: D

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NO.21 What is the intended purpose of the default traffic sampling action of ProCurve NIM?
A. to prevent ProCurve NIM from triggering false positives
B. to help PCM+/NIM periodically begin to monitor new ports
C. to send traffic for increased analysis to an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
D. to allow ProCurve NIM to take immediate action against the most probable threats
Answer: B

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NO.22 ProCurve NIM was registering few TCP/UDP Fanout events. You have raised the sensitivity, and
many false positive TCP/UDP Fanout events are now triggered throughout the network. What should you
do next? (Select two.)
A. Lower the sensitivity to the previous level.
B. Remove the TCP/UDP alert from all policies.
C. Plan and create a Policy Manager policy to deal with false positive events.
D. Exclude the devices triggering the false positive events from the TCP/UDP fanout.
Answer: AD

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NO.23 Which events can be signs of an unauthorized port scan? (Select two.)
A. Port Anomaly
B. DNS Tunneling
C. TCP/UDP Fanout
D. UDP Protocol Anomaly
E. TCP Protocol Anomaly
Answer: CE

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NO.24 Which misconfiguration on PCM+ causes ProCurve NIM to fail to detect any anomalies in traffic?
A. the wrong sFlow version
B. an incorrect operator password
C. an incorrect manager password
D. an incorrect SNMP community name
Answer: D

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NO.25 By default, which NBAD event will trigger traffic sampling on a port?
A. Duplicate IP
B. Virus Throttle
C. Protocol Anomaly
D. Packet Size Deviation
Answer: D

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NO.26 Click the Exhibit button.
Which port in the exhibit should you select in PCM+ and configure as the mirror destination?
A. 1
B. A6
C. X0
D. B16
E. 25-48
Answer: B

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NO.27 Which threat mitigation action is supported on ProCurve wireless devices?
A. Port Disable
B. MAC Lockout
C. Port Rate Limit
D. Quarantine VLAN
Answer: B

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NO.28 When should the unified NIM + IDS deployment option be used?
A. to take immediate action to protect key resources and also track threats to the source
B. to add threat protection to the features of ProCurve NIM, which include only threat detection
C. to allow ProCurve NIM to mirror suspicious traffic to an external device for additional analysis
D. to protect against threats from wireless devices, which ProCurve NIM is not able to do on its own
Answer: C

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NO.29 From which NBAD event should you often exclude your servers?
A. DNS Tunneling
B. TCP/UDP Fanout
C. Protocol Anomaly
D. Packet Size Deviation
Answer: B

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NO.30 Which tab is added to PCM+ when you install ProCurve NIM?
A. Policy Events
B. Security Audit
C. Event Browser
D. Security Activity
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: HP2-027
Nom d'Examen: HP (Technical Essentials of HP Enterprise Products)
Questions et réponses: 53 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the benefit of using server virtualization technology, such as VMware, in the x86
server environment?
A. to maximize the utilization of x86 server resources
B. to enable clustering without single-point-of-failure
C. to enable failover-failback between x86 processors
D. to maximize I/O performance by sharing with multiple servers
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which application functionality benefits most from a 64-bit architecture over a 32-bit
architecture?
A. Clustered DNS Server
B. Clustered Print Spooling
C. High Performance Computing
D. Clustered AutoStore Capturing
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is important to implement when providing a non-disruptive IP telephony solution
(VoIP)?
A. Fabric Shortest Path First (FSPF)
B. Packet caching (Pcache)
C. Quality of Service (QoS)
D. VLAN routing (vlanR)
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which HP 9000 server supports a maximum of two hard partitions?
A. rp4440-4
B. rp4440-8
C. rp7420-6
D. rp8420-32
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which networking security option can be used to authenticate wireless LAN
(802.11b/g/a) access?
A. VLAN
B. DMZ
C. RADIUS
D. BOOTP
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which advantage does fiber optic cable offer over copper cabling?
A. lower reliance on hubs and switches
B. longer distances
C. easier implementation
D. lower cost
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which web-based software solution enables a corporate customer to track PC (business
desktop, notebooks and workstations) assets, alerts, diagnostics and SoftPaq distribution
across an enterprise environment?
A. Altiris Deployment Server
B. HP OpenView Helpdesk software
C. HP Essentials software
D. HP Client Manager tool
Answer: D

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NO.8 An engineering drawing firm is planning to upgrade their tape backup systems, but they
are constrained by their investment in older tapes. They need systems that will preserve
their old data by reading backward two generations.
Which tape technology provides read compatibility for two prior generations? Select
TWO.
A. SDLT
B. AIT
C. LTO
D. DLT
E. SLR
Answer: C, D

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NO.9 Which legacy server platforms have high potential to migrate to the Intel Itanium server
platform? Select TWO.
A. HP 9000 servers
B. HP AlphaServers
C. HP ProLiant 300 family servers
D. HP ProLiant 900 family servers
Answer: A, B

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NO.10 Which backup method provides the lowest TCO?
A. shared SCSI backup
B. local SCSI backup
C. data replication backup
D. automated centralized backup
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: HP0-S24
Nom d'Examen: HP (Planning and Designing ProLiant Solutions for the Enterprise)
Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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NO.1 In dual-core processor technologies, which components are duplicated within the single physical
processor chip?
A. execution core and processor cache
B. processor cache and cache controller
C. execution core, processor cache, and cache controller
D. execution core, processor cache, cache controller, and bus interface
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which features are included with the HP Modular Cooling System? (Select three.)
A. hot-swappable components
B. height range from 14 to 47U
C. support for very high density hardware
D.perforated front and back doors
E. support for up to 35kW per rack
F. loading capacity up to 1500 pounds (680 kg)
Answer: ACE

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NO.3 Click Next or More to continue.
Answer:

NO.4 What is the recommended tool for configuring iLO 2 settings on new servers?
A. HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM)
B. ROM-Based Setup Utility (RBSU)
C. SmartStart
D. SmartStart Scripting Toolkit (SSST)
Answer: B

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NO.5 Click Next or More to continue.
Answer:

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Nom d'Examen: ISEB (Foundation Certificate in Business Analysis)
Questions et réponses: 160 Q&As

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NO.1 What does the O' stand for in the CATVVOE analysis?
A. The objectives of the business system under review.
B. The opportunities for change in the business system under review.
C. The organisation of the business system under review.
D. The owner of the business system under review.
Answer: D

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NO.2 When should benefits realisation be carried out?
A. Immediately at the end of the project.
B. At the beginning of the project.
C. At the end of the finalised feasibility study.
D. Months or years after the end of the project.
Answer: D

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NO.3 In which of the following business analysis areas does the traditional systems analyst role primarily
operate?
A. Quantifying costs and benefits.
B. Defining the needs of the business.
C. Implementing business changes.
D. Specifying IT system requirements.
Answer: D

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NO.4 In a particular organisation it is common practice to call all managers by their first name. It is part of the
culture of the organisation. Newcomers are quickly corrected if they do not follow this informal approach.
What would knowing about this convention be classified as in Requirements Engineering?
A. Explicit individual knowledge.
B. Tacit individual knowledge.
C. Explicit corporate knowledge.
D. Tacit corporate knowledge.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following terms may be used to describe the attitude of a stakeholder who is NOT in favour
of the project but is probably not actively opposed to it?
A. Opponent.
B. Neutral.
C. Critic.
D. Blocker.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Given the cashflows below, which of the following is correct?
A. The project pays back in year 4 of the project.
B. The project does not pay back within the four year period.
C. The project pays back in year 2 of the project.
D. The project pays back in year 3 of the project.
Answer: B

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NO.7 A batch program runs every night to raise invoices. The next day these invoices are posted out to
customers by a clerk. Customers pay the invoices with cheques. The cheques are then banked by a clerk.
In this scenario, which of the following represents a business event?
A. System prints invoices.
B. Clerk sends invoices to customers.
C. Customer's cheque is received.
D. Clerk banks the cheque.
Answer: C

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NO.8 The required competencies of a business analyst are classified into three categories.
Which of the following is one of these three categories.?
A. Management Qualities.
B. Business Knowledge.
C. IT Skills
D. Project Skills.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following investigation techniques involves following a user for one or two days in order to
find out what a particular job entails?
A. Scenario analysis.
B. Protocol analysis.
C. Shadowing.
D. Activity sampling.
Answer: C

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NO.10 It has been suggested that five clerical posts can be abolished when a new computer system is
implemented. Under which category of costs or benefits will this be recorded?
A. Tangible costs.
B. Tangible benefits.
C. Intangible costs.
D. Intangible benefits.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which of the following statement is TRUE about the process view of an organisation?
A. It focuses on the customer of the organisation.
B. It focuses solely on the internal view of the organisation.
C. It focuses on the functions of an organisation.
D. It focuses on the organisational structure.
Answer: A

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NO.12 Different reactions may be observed when a change to working methods is proposed. These reactions
include:
a. Enthusiasm for the change.
b. Fear of the change.
c. Reduced performance on the job.
d. Reluctant acceptance of the change.
Which of the following represents the typical sequence of these four reactions?
A. b, d, c and a.
B. a, b, c and d.
C. b, c, d and a.
D. a, b, d and c.
Answer: C

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NO.13 As part of an investigation a Business Analyst has devised a form for users of an existing system to use
to keep track of the tasks they undertake during their working day. Which of the following describes this
investigation technique?
A. Special purpose records,
B. Scenario analysis.
C. Questionnaires.
D. Activity sampling.
Answer: A

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NO.14 What is the first stage of the waterfall systems development lifecycle?
A. Plan.
B. Analysis.
C. Feasibility Study.
D. Strategic Vision.
Answer: C

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NO.15 Business rules define how actions are to be performed. Under which of the following headings are
business rules considered?
A. Explicit or implicit management statements,
B. Statutory and internal policies.
C. Constraints and operational guidance.
D. Negotiable and non-negotiable limitations.
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which stage in the waterfall model is considered as several separate stages in the V model?
A. Development.
B. Analysis.
C. Testing.
D. Design.
Answer: C

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NO.17 A well formed requirement is said to comply with which of the following acronyms?
A. MOSCOW.
B. SMART.
C. OSCAR.
D. MOST.
Answer: B

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NO.18 A stakeholder has been classified as 'some' on both the power/influence and interest axes of a
power/interest grid. Which of the following would be an appropriate way of managing this
stakeholder?
A. Keep on side.
B. Keep watching.
C. Keep informed.
D. Keep satisfied.
Answer: A

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NO.19 On a class diagram, what do the multiplicities represent?
A. The number of attributes held within each class.
B. The minimum and maximum number of operations in each class.
C. The minimum and maximum number of objects in each class.
D. The business rules for an association between two classes.
Answer: D

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NO.20 During which stage of the Business Analysis Process Model would a gap analysis be carried out?
A. Define requirements.
B. Analyse needs.
C. Evaluate the options.
D. Investigate situation.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: EUCOC
Nom d'Examen: ISEB (Intermediate Certificate in EU Code of Conduct for Data centres )
Questions et réponses: 50 Q&As

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NO.1 A facility's 'IT load', as defined by the Code of Conduct, includes the power drawn by which of the
following?
a. The Power Distribution Units feeding the racks
b. Servers
c. Firewalls
d. Switches
e. Tape libraries
A. b, c. d and e
B. a, d and e
C. b and c
D. b. c and d
Answer: A

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NO.2 The numerical value associated with each Best Practice is shown for the following reason:
A. To allow operators to add up their total score in order that they can be compared with their competitors.
B. To allow the Code of Conduct administrators to properly assess each application.
C. To provide an independent scorecard for data centre owners.
D. To indicate the level of benefit from carrying out a Best Practice.
Answer: D

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NO.3 'Facility load', as defined by the Code of Conduct, includes the power drawn by which of the following?
a. The UPS.
b. Lighting.
c. Air-conditioning units.
d. Monitors housed in racks.
e. Tape libraries
A. a, b, and c
B. a and d
C. b and c
D. d, and e
Answer: A

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NO.4 Why has the EU Code of Conduct on Data Centres been developed?
a. Because data centres are using an increasing amount of power and they need to maximise their
efficiency to reduce their impact on the power infrastructure.
b. Because the power consumption of data centres across Europe as a whole needs to fall to meet
agreed C02 targets.
c. Because many data centres have outdated designs which focus on perceived reliability at the expense
of cost and energy efficiency.
d. Because the energy consumption of data centres has become a significant business cost.
e. Because the United States (US) has taken a significant lead in energy conservation and EU-based data
centres need a code of conduct to compete in a global marketplace.
A. a, b, c and d
B. a, c and d
C. b and e
D. e only
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following BEST define the aims of the EU Code of Conduct on Data Centres.?
a. To determine and accelerate the application of energy efficient technologies.
b. Develop practical voluntary commitments which when implemented improve the energy efficiency of
data centres and in so doing minimise the Total Cost of Ownership (TCO).
c. To develop and promote a set of easily understood metrics to measure the current efficiencies and
subsequent improvement.
d. To encourage the closure of data centres that are less energy efficient.
e. To ensure that the EU is visibly taking a lead in this important area of energy conservation.
A. a, b, c and d
B. d and e
C. a, b and c
D. e only
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: ISEB-ITILF
Nom d'Examen: ISEB (The Foundation Examination - ITIL®)
Questions et réponses: 418 Q&As

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NO.1 What is a RACI model used for.?
A. Defining roles and responsibilities
B. Monitoring services
C. Performance analysis
D. Recording Configuration Items
Answer: A

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NO.2 Exhibit: * Missing*
Which is the correct combination of Service Management terms across the Lifecycle?
A. 1A, 2B, 3C, 4D
B. 1C, 2D, 3A, 4B
C. 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D
D. 1B, 2C, 3D, 4A
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management Databases
(CMDB)
B. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
C. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization
D. The SKMS can include user skill levels
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager?
A. Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue
B. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate
C. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service
Portfolio
D. Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
Answer: D

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NO.5 In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of Service Level Management, Availability
Management, Supplier Management and IT Service Continuity Management?
A. Service Transition
B. Service Design
C. Service Strategy
D. Service Operation
Answer: B

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NO.6 The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is?
A. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle
B. To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services
C. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
D. To design and build processes that will meet business needs
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of Service Design?
A. The design of the Service Portfolio, including the Service Catalogue
B. The design of Market Spaces
C. The design of new or changed services
D. The design of the technology architecture and management systems
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
B. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization
C. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management Databases
(CMDB)
D. The SKMS can include user skill levels
Answer: A

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NO.9 Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service Asset?
A. Services and Infrastructure
B. Applications and Infrastructure
C. Resources and Capabilities
D. Utility and Warranty
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following models would be most useful in helping to define an organizational structure?
A. Service Model
B. Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model
C. RACI Model
D. Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) Model
Answer: C

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NO.11 The group that reviews Changes that must be installed faster than the normal Change process is
called the:
A. Technical Management (TM)
B. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)
C. Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB)
D. Urgent Change Board (UCB)
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?
A. A change to the service provider's established policies and guidelines
B. A pre-authorized change that has an accepted and established procedure
C. A change that is made as the result of an audit
D. A change that correctly follows the required change process
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which role would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of Underpinning Contracts?
A. Service Catalogue Manager
B. IT Designer/Architect
C. Process Manager
D. Supplier Manager
Answer: D

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NO.14 Effective release and deployment management enables the service provider to add value to the
business by?
A. Ensuring that all assets are accounted for
B. Ensures that the fastest servers are purchased
C. Delivering change, faster and at optimum cost and minimized risk
D. Verifying the accuracy of all items in the configuration management database
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which of the questions does Service Strategy help answer with its guidance?
1) How do we prioritize investments across a portfolio?
2) What services to offer and to whom?
3) What are the Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)?
A. 3 only
B. 1 only
C. 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 are all true
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which of the following is NOT an example of Self-Help capabilities?
A. Requirement to always call the service desk for service requests
B. Menu-driven range of self help and service requests
C. Web front-end
D. A direct interface into the back end process handling software
Answer: A

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NO.17 How many times should each stage of the Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle be visited?
A. Each stage should be carried out once in the order Plan-Do-Check-Act
B. There should be a single Plan, then the Do-Check-Act cycle should be repeated multiple times to
implement Continual Improvement
C. There should be a single Plan and Do, then Check and Act should be carried out multiple times to
implement Continual Improvement
D. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement
Answer: D

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NO.18 The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called the?
A. Emergency CAB (ECAB)
B. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)
C. Urgent Change Board (UCB)
D. CAB Emergency Committee (CAB/EC)
Answer: A

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NO.19 A plan for managing the end of a supplier contract should be created when?
A. The contract is being negotiated
B. The contract is about to be ended
C. The Supplier Manager decides that there is a risk the contract might need to end soon
D. The contract has been agreed
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which of these statements about Service Desk staff is CORRECT?
A. Service Desk staff should be recruited from people who have high levels of technical skill to minimize
the cost of training them
B. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more technical or
supervisory roles
C. The Service Desk should try to have a high level of staff turnover as the training requirements are low
and this helps to minimize salaries
D. Service Desk staff should be discouraged from applying for other roles as it is more cost effective to
keep them in the role where they have been trained
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: CISSP-ISSAP
Nom d'Examen: ISC (CISSP-ISSAP - Information Systems Security Architecture Professional)
Questions et réponses: 237 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following is a method for transforming a message into a masked form, together with a way
of undoing the transformation to recover the message?
A. Cipher
B. CrypTool
C. Steganography
D. MIME
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following elements of planning gap measures the gap between the total potential for the
market and the actual current usage by all the consumers in the market?
A. Project gap
B. Product gap
C. Competitive gap
D. Usage gap
Answer: D

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NO.3 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. He wants users to access only those resources
that are required for them. Which of the following access control models will he use?
A. Policy Access Control
B. Mandatory Access Control
C. Discretionary Access Control
D. Role-Based Access Control
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following does PEAP use to authenticate the user inside an encrypted tunnel? Each
correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. GTC
B. MS-CHAP v2
C. AES
D. RC4
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 Which of the following statements about a stream cipher are true? Each correct answer represents a
complete solution. Choose three.
A. It typically executes at a higher speed than a block cipher.
B. It divides a message into blocks for processing.
C. It typically executes at a slower speed than a block cipher.
D. It divides a message into bits for processing.
E. It is a symmetric key cipher.
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.6 Which of the following types of firewall functions at the Session layer of OSI model?
A. Circuit-level firewall
B. Application-level firewall
C. Packet filtering firewall
D. Switch-level firewall
Answer: A

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NO.7 A user is sending a large number of protocol packets to a network in order to saturate its resources and
to disrupt connections to prevent communications between services. Which type of attack is this?
A. Denial-of-Service attack
B. Vulnerability attack
C. Social Engineering attack
D. Impersonation attack
Answer: A

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NO.8 IPsec VPN provides a high degree of data privacy by establishing trust points between communicating
devices and data encryption. Which of the following encryption methods does IPsec VPN use? Each
correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. MD5
B. LEAP
C. AES
D. 3DES
Answer: C,D

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NO.9 Which of the following protocols is an alternative to certificate revocation lists (CRL) and allows the
authenticity of a certificate to be immediately verified?
A. RSTP
B. SKIP
C. OCSP
D. HTTP
Answer: C

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NO.10 You want to implement a network topology that provides the best balance for regional topologies in
terms of the number of virtual circuits, redundancy, and performance while establishing a WAN network.
Which of the following network topologies will you use to accomplish the task?
A. Bus topology
B. Fully meshed topology
C. Star topology
D. Partially meshed topology
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which of the following is used to authenticate asymmetric keys?
A. Digital signature
B. MAC Address
C. Demilitarized zone (DMZ)
D. Password
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which of the following terms refers to a mechanism which proves that the sender really sent a
particular message?
A. Integrity
B. Confidentiality
C. Authentication
D. Non-repudiation
Answer: D

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NO.13 You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company wants to encrypt its e-mails. Which
of the following will you use to accomplish this?
A. PGP
B. PPTP
C. IPSec
D. NTFS
Answer: A

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NO.14 Adam works as a Security Analyst for Umbrella Inc. CEO of the company ordered him to implement
two-factor authentication for the employees to access their networks. He has told him that he would like to
use some type of hardware device in tandem with a security or identifying pin number. Adam decides to
implement smart cards but they are not cost effective. Which of the following types of hardware devices
will Adam use to implement two-factor authentication?
A. Biometric device
B. One Time Password
C. Proximity cards
D. Security token
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which of the following types of attack can be used to break the best physical and logical security
mechanism to gain access to a system?
A. Social engineering attack
B. Cross site scripting attack
C. Mail bombing
D. Password guessing attack
Answer: A

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NO.16 You are the Security Consultant advising a company on security methods. This is a highly secure
location that deals with sensitive national defense related data. They are very concerned about physical
security as they had a breach last month. In that breach an individual had simply grabbed a laptop and
ran out of the building. Which one of the following would have been most effective in preventing this?
A. Not using laptops.
B. Keeping all doors locked with a guard.
C. Using a man-trap.
D. A sign in log.
Answer: C

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NO.17 Peter works as a Network Administrator for Net World Inc. The company wants to allow remote users to
connect and access its private network through a dial-up connection via the Internet. All the data will be
sent across a public network. For security reasons, the management wants the data sent through the
Internet to be encrypted. The company plans to use a Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) connection.
Which communication protocol will Peter use to accomplish the task?
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. Microsoft Point-to-Point Encryption (MPPE)
C. Pretty Good Privacy (PGP)
D. Data Encryption Standard (DES)
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which of the following security devices is presented to indicate some feat of service, a special
accomplishment, a symbol of authority granted by taking an oath, a sign of legitimate employment or
student status, or as a simple means of identification?
A. Sensor
B. Alarm
C. Motion detector
D. Badge
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which of the following protocols multicasts messages and information among all member devices in an
IP multicast group?
A. ARP
B. ICMP
C. TCP
D. IGMP
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which of the following terms refers to the method that allows or restricts specific types of packets from
crossing over the firewall.?
A. Hacking
B. Packet filtering
C. Web caching
D. Spoofing
Answer: B

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