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Code d'Examen: CISSP-ISSAP
Nom d'Examen: ISC (CISSP-ISSAP - Information Systems Security Architecture Professional)
Questions et réponses: 237 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following is a method for transforming a message into a masked form, together with a way
of undoing the transformation to recover the message?
A. Cipher
B. CrypTool
C. Steganography
D. MIME
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following elements of planning gap measures the gap between the total potential for the
market and the actual current usage by all the consumers in the market?
A. Project gap
B. Product gap
C. Competitive gap
D. Usage gap
Answer: D

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NO.3 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. He wants users to access only those resources
that are required for them. Which of the following access control models will he use?
A. Policy Access Control
B. Mandatory Access Control
C. Discretionary Access Control
D. Role-Based Access Control
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following does PEAP use to authenticate the user inside an encrypted tunnel? Each
correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. GTC
B. MS-CHAP v2
C. AES
D. RC4
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 Which of the following statements about a stream cipher are true? Each correct answer represents a
complete solution. Choose three.
A. It typically executes at a higher speed than a block cipher.
B. It divides a message into blocks for processing.
C. It typically executes at a slower speed than a block cipher.
D. It divides a message into bits for processing.
E. It is a symmetric key cipher.
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.6 Which of the following types of firewall functions at the Session layer of OSI model?
A. Circuit-level firewall
B. Application-level firewall
C. Packet filtering firewall
D. Switch-level firewall
Answer: A

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NO.7 A user is sending a large number of protocol packets to a network in order to saturate its resources and
to disrupt connections to prevent communications between services. Which type of attack is this?
A. Denial-of-Service attack
B. Vulnerability attack
C. Social Engineering attack
D. Impersonation attack
Answer: A

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NO.8 IPsec VPN provides a high degree of data privacy by establishing trust points between communicating
devices and data encryption. Which of the following encryption methods does IPsec VPN use? Each
correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. MD5
B. LEAP
C. AES
D. 3DES
Answer: C,D

ISC   CISSP-ISSAP   CISSP-ISSAP

NO.9 Which of the following protocols is an alternative to certificate revocation lists (CRL) and allows the
authenticity of a certificate to be immediately verified?
A. RSTP
B. SKIP
C. OCSP
D. HTTP
Answer: C

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NO.10 You want to implement a network topology that provides the best balance for regional topologies in
terms of the number of virtual circuits, redundancy, and performance while establishing a WAN network.
Which of the following network topologies will you use to accomplish the task?
A. Bus topology
B. Fully meshed topology
C. Star topology
D. Partially meshed topology
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which of the following is used to authenticate asymmetric keys?
A. Digital signature
B. MAC Address
C. Demilitarized zone (DMZ)
D. Password
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which of the following terms refers to a mechanism which proves that the sender really sent a
particular message?
A. Integrity
B. Confidentiality
C. Authentication
D. Non-repudiation
Answer: D

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NO.13 You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company wants to encrypt its e-mails. Which
of the following will you use to accomplish this?
A. PGP
B. PPTP
C. IPSec
D. NTFS
Answer: A

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NO.14 Adam works as a Security Analyst for Umbrella Inc. CEO of the company ordered him to implement
two-factor authentication for the employees to access their networks. He has told him that he would like to
use some type of hardware device in tandem with a security or identifying pin number. Adam decides to
implement smart cards but they are not cost effective. Which of the following types of hardware devices
will Adam use to implement two-factor authentication?
A. Biometric device
B. One Time Password
C. Proximity cards
D. Security token
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which of the following types of attack can be used to break the best physical and logical security
mechanism to gain access to a system?
A. Social engineering attack
B. Cross site scripting attack
C. Mail bombing
D. Password guessing attack
Answer: A

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NO.16 You are the Security Consultant advising a company on security methods. This is a highly secure
location that deals with sensitive national defense related data. They are very concerned about physical
security as they had a breach last month. In that breach an individual had simply grabbed a laptop and
ran out of the building. Which one of the following would have been most effective in preventing this?
A. Not using laptops.
B. Keeping all doors locked with a guard.
C. Using a man-trap.
D. A sign in log.
Answer: C

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NO.17 Peter works as a Network Administrator for Net World Inc. The company wants to allow remote users to
connect and access its private network through a dial-up connection via the Internet. All the data will be
sent across a public network. For security reasons, the management wants the data sent through the
Internet to be encrypted. The company plans to use a Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) connection.
Which communication protocol will Peter use to accomplish the task?
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. Microsoft Point-to-Point Encryption (MPPE)
C. Pretty Good Privacy (PGP)
D. Data Encryption Standard (DES)
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which of the following security devices is presented to indicate some feat of service, a special
accomplishment, a symbol of authority granted by taking an oath, a sign of legitimate employment or
student status, or as a simple means of identification?
A. Sensor
B. Alarm
C. Motion detector
D. Badge
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which of the following protocols multicasts messages and information among all member devices in an
IP multicast group?
A. ARP
B. ICMP
C. TCP
D. IGMP
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which of the following terms refers to the method that allows or restricts specific types of packets from
crossing over the firewall.?
A. Hacking
B. Packet filtering
C. Web caching
D. Spoofing
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 000-M22
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Rational Application Developer Tech Sales Mastery V1)
Questions et réponses: 34 Q&As

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NO.1 Which one of the following provides for remoteWSDL validation?
A. ServletWizard
B. Web Services Wizard
C. XpathWizard
D. SessionWizard
Answer:B

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NO.2 Why is IBM Rational Application Developer(RAD) important to SOA?
A. RAD is the Enterprise Service Bus (ESB) for SOA architecture.
B. SOA is a graphical extension to automated architecture. RAD graphical interface allows SOAautomat
ed architecture todevelop service components.
C. RAD does not support any features for SOA, so it is not important for SOA.
D. RAD has the capability to develop SOA pieces such as Web services,which can be an integral part of
an SOA.
Answer:D

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NO.3 Which one of the following editors does not come with IBM Rational Application Developer?
A. WSDL Editor
B. XSL Editor
C. Java Visual Editor
D. Hibernate Mapping Editor
Answer:D

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NO.4 What is the scriptable bytecode instrumentation (BCI) framework that is used to write Java codefragm
ents?
A. A Memory Leak Framework
B. A Probekit
C. A Profile Toolkit
D. A Snippet Generator
Answer:B

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NO.5 When usingAgent Controller to gather information about applications running on a remote system you
needto installAgent Controller:
A. On the same system as RAD is installed
B. On a remote system to which you would like to publish your application
C. On the remote system fromwhich the log files are imported
D. On the system where you runtest cases
Answer:B

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Code d'Examen: 000-446
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Content Manager OnDemand for i5/OS)
Questions et réponses: 116 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two can be used to view data that is output from the AFP2HTML transform? (Choose two.)
A.the AFP2HTML applet
B.the native Web browser
C.the AFP Plug-in
D.the Line Data applet
E.the Adobe Acrobat Reader
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 Which function does the OnDemand server run to allow users to connect to an OnDemand system
through the Client for Windows?
A.the arscnct job
B.the client/server job
C.the arssockd job
D.the DB2 Connect job
Answer: C

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NO.3 What must be enabled on the browser for the OnDemand Web Enablement Kit to function properly?
A.cookies
B.active scripting
C.script debugging
D.ActiveX controls
Answer: A

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NO.4 An Advanced Function Printing Data stream (AFPDS) report is displayed using the OnDemand
Client.An error message is displayed indicating that the requested font is not found.Which action should
be performed to keep those error message from being displayed in the future?
A.Update the code pages in the ICU Font Library.
B.Repackage the OnDemand Client installation with AFP font support.
C.Update the *.cp files in the FONT\MAPS directory.
D.Update the ICU Data Library with custom conversion tables.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Before using the Report Wizard to define a PDF report, what must be installed on the PC running the
OnDemand Administrative Client?
A.The PDF Indexer
B.Adobe Acrobat
C.Adobe Acrobat Reader
D.The OnDemand PDF Wizard
Answer: B

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NO.6 What can be specified when defining a report using the Report Wizard?
A.Segment Date format
B.logical view
C.Postprocessor Parameters
D.Large Object support
Answer: D

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NO.7 A company plans to store a 6500-page document in OnDemand.Which action should be used to view
a few pages in this document at a time?
A.Create a table index.
B.Enable large object support.
C.Use fewer triggers when indexing.
D.Add an application ID to the application group.
Answer: B

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NO.8 An application group specifies to Migrate Data from cache as "When Data is Loaded".A report is
archived into OnDemand.In addition to the CACHE directory, a copy of the archived report is placed into
which directory?
A.ASMAGGREGATION
B.ASMREQUEST
C.TMP
D.LOAD
Answer: B

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NO.9 An OnDemand administrator has received an error message indicating that journaling needs to be
restarted for the OnDemand database files.Which command would be used to accomplish this task?
A.Select the restart journaling option from the OnDemand Administrative client.
B.Use the RSTONDJRN command.
C.Use the RSTJRNOND command.
D.Run program QRLCSTRJ with parameter PARM(RLC) from the command line.
Answer: D

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NO.10 An administrator wants to store a System Log message whenever a user deletes an annotation.The box
in the Application Group Message Logging for Annotation Delete is checked.A test is performed to
validate that messages are being stored as expected.The administrator deletes an annotation and then
queries the System Log for the proper message (Message number 70), but nothing is returned.Which
additional required step should be completed for the proper message to be logged?
A.Annotation delete message logging must be selected for the administrator's userid.
B.The System Log does not have an option to store a message for annotation deletions.
C.Administrator permissions allow annotations to be deleted and so no message is stored.
D.Application Group Messages must be checked in the System Logging section of the System
Parameters.
Answer: D

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NO.11 A report layout contains multiple account numbers (each containing 10 numeric characters) per page
but there are some inconsistencies when locating account numbers.Often, a description field will overlap
into the account number column.These numbers do not appear sequentially.What can be used to ensure
that the indexer will collect only the account number and not part of the description?
A.Define the field with a mask and offset values
B.Define the field based on a floating trigger
C.Define the field based on a floating trigger with mask values
D.Define the field based on a floating trigger with mask and offset values
Answer: C

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NO.12 A company would like the ability to notify the security administrator whenever there is a failed log in
attempt by a user.Which series of steps must the company complete to accomplish this goal?
A.Check the Failed Login checkbox in both the System Logging and User Exit Logging sections on the
System Parameters window.
B.Check the Failed Login checkbox in the User Exit Logging section on the System Parameters window.
C.Write a user exit program to send a message to the system administrator and check the Failed Login
checkbox in both the System Logging and User Exit Logging sections on the System Parameters window.
D.Write a user exit program to send a message to the system administrator and check the Failed Login
checkbox in the User Exit Logging section on the System Parameters window.
Answer: D

IBM   000-446   000-446   000-446

NO.13 What does a validation string used by OnDemand validate?
A.the load information for the current page
B.the field information for the current page
C.that the current page can be indexed and stored
D.that the current page can be viewed with the logical view
Answer: D

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NO.14 To create a default date-range search option for a report to specify the last six months, which task must
be completed?
A.Change the application group default date-range interval.
B.Change the Folder - Field Information default date-range interval.
C.Change the Application - Load Information default date-range interval.
D.Change both the folder and the application default date-range intervals.
Answer: B

IBM examen   000-446   000-446

NO.15 A customer intends to store all of its archive data into DR550 or Centera storage devices.Which
statement is true?
A.An OnDemand storage set links directly to a DR550 or a Centera device.
B.TSM cannot be configured to interface with Centera devices.
C.TSM can be configured to interface with DR550 or a Centera devices.
D.OnDemand can write directly to Centera devices; therefore TSM is not required.
Answer: C

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NO.16 After installing the OnDemand Web Enablement Kit (ODWEK) software, what must be done before you
can begin configuring the ODWEK initialization file for your operating environment?
A.Configure the HTTP server.
B.Configure the OnDemand server.
C.Configure the client PC.
D.Configure the Web Application Server.
Answer: A

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NO.17 An OnDemand system administrator runs the STRDSMOND command specifying a specific
application group and sets the RUNASM parameter to *YES.Which statement reflects how ASM will run?
A.ASM will run for all application groups.
B.ASM will run for only the application groups specified for DSM.
C.ASM will fail unless you have named a specific policy to process.
D.ASM will run in the same batch job immediately after STRDSMOND completes.
Answer: A

IBM   000-446 examen   000-446 examen   000-446 examen

NO.18 To load data into a TSM controlled data storage device, which attribute must match the OnDemand
storage node attributes defined within a Storage Set?
A.TSM node name and password
B.Copy Group name and password
C.Policy Set name and password
D.Policy Domain name and password
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which command(s) would be used to delete both the index data and documents stored during the load
process?
A.DLTRPTOND
B.RMVIDXOND and RMVRPTOND
C.RMVRPTOND
D.DLTIDXOND and DLTRPTOND
Answer: C

IBM   000-446   000-446 examen

NO.20 A customer is looking for a way to do a broad search across the entire enterprise for content stored on
their websites, file systems, and DB2 Content Manager.Which product provides this capability?
A.OmniFind
B.DB2 CommonStore
C.DB2 Content Manager
D.WebSphere Information Integrator Content Edition
Answer: A

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L'avènement de la certification IBM pratique d'examen 000-839 questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 000-839
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Rational Unified Process v7.0)
Questions et réponses: 117 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two model elements can be linked to descriptors? (Choose two.)
A.Phase
B.Task
C.Activity
D.Role
Correct:B D

IBM   000-839   certification 000-839   000-839 examen   000-839

NO.2 Which two factors determine the duration of an iteration? (Choose two.)
A.the size of the project
B.the priority set by the customer on particular features
C.the requirement for a minimum of six iterations in a project
D.the level of automation used to manage code, distribute information and perform testing
Correct:A D

IBM   000-839   certification 000-839   000-839 examen   000-839

NO.3 In the Construction phase, what are the two areas of focus of the Iteration Plan? (Choose two.)
A.development efficiency
B.project scoping
C.architectural risks
D.product quality
Correct:A D

IBM   000-839   certification 000-839   000-839 examen   000-839

NO.4 In RUP, what does the Software Development Plan contain?
A.Iteration Plan
B.Requirements Management Plan, Master Validation Plan, Quality Test Plan, and Risk Management
Plan
C.Problem Resolution Plan, Product Acceptance Plan, Measurement Plan, Risk Management Plan, and
Quality Assurance Plan
D.Requirements Management Plan, Product Metrics Plan, and Software Test Assurance Plan
Correct:C

IBM   000-839   certification 000-839   000-839 examen   000-839

NO.5 What are three characteristics of a task? (Choose three.)
A.is work a role performs
B.occurs once in an iteration
C.has granularity of a few hours to a few days
D.usually affects only one or a small number of work products
Correct:A C D

IBM   000-839   certification 000-839   000-839 examen   000-839

NO.6 Which two statements are true about iterations? (Choose two.)
A.Working software is always delivered to the customer.
B.An iterations always has a plan and evaluation criteria.
C.An iteration is a mini project with a plan, deliverables and assessment.
D.There are always multiple iterations in each phase.
Correct:B C

IBM   000-839   certification 000-839   000-839 examen   000-839

NO.7 What are three types of work products? (Choose three.)
A.artifact
B.deliverable
C.milestone
D.outcome
Correct:A B D

IBM   000-839   certification 000-839   000-839 examen   000-839

NO.8 What is a typical breakdown of total project effort across the phases?
A.Inception 20% Elaboration 50% Construction 20% Transition 10%
B.Inception 5%, Elaboration 20%, Construction 45%, Transition 30%
C.Inception 10% Elaboration 10% Construction 70% Transition 10%
D.Inception 5% Elaboration 20% Construction 65% Transition 10%
Correct:D

IBM   000-839   certification 000-839   000-839 examen   000-839

NO.9 What are two functions of a Status Assessment? (Choose two.)
A.manages expectations
B.provides a mechanism for resolving management issues
C.rates the overall project quality
D.resolves risk items
Correct:A B

IBM   000-839   certification 000-839   000-839 examen   000-839

NO.10 Which three work products belong in the Project Management discipline? (Choose three.)
A.Risk Management Plan
B.Business Case
C.Test Evaluation Summary Report
D.Project Plan
Correct:A B D

IBM   000-839   certification 000-839   000-839 examen   000-839

NO.11 The Iteration Plan belongs to _____.
A.the Project Management domain and the Specification work product kind
B.the Assessment domain and the Project Management work product kind
C.the Planning domain and the Project Management work product kind
D.the Project Management domain and the Plan work product kind
Correct:D

IBM   000-839   certification 000-839   000-839 examen   000-839

NO.12 Why does the risk-time profile decline more rapidly for iterative development than waterfall
development? (Choose two.)
A.Iterative development exposes design flaws and enables resolution earlier in the lifecycle.
B.With iterative development, customer satisfaction is maintained by early, incremental deliveries of
capability.
C.In iterative development, the software architecture can be revised in any iteration to support new
features and overcome performance problems.
D.Iterative development allows key, non-functional requirements (i.e. performance, fault tolerance and
maintainability) to be addressed early in development.
Correct:A D

IBM   000-839   certification 000-839   000-839 examen   000-839

NO.13 What is the purpose of the Project Plan?
A.to assess the feasibility of the project
B.to establish project staffing
C.to describe the phases and major milestones of the project
D.to provide a sound rationale for project funding
Correct:C

IBM   000-839   certification 000-839   000-839 examen   000-839

NO.14 How does an iterative approach help with resource and cost control?
A.It allows the Project Manager to control allocation of resources by phase. Artifacts evolve as required by
each phase and there is increased precision of cost estimates from phase to phase.
B.It allows the Project Manager to make budgetary requests with each iteration. These requests are
based on the expansion of project scope as requested by the customer.
C.It allows iterations to be planned in advance and in detail for all phases. It helps establish costs and a
profile of resource usage can be generated in advance for the entire project.
D.It allows iterations to be de-scoped as required, at the direction of the Project Manager. It allows better
management of costs as features can be moved to later iterations when resources are available.
Correct:A

IBM   000-839   certification 000-839   000-839 examen   000-839

NO.15 Which two statements are true about an Executable Architecture? (Choose two.)
A.It is a disposable prototype of the application.
B.It is a simulation of the executing system.
C.It is a validation (testable) of the architecture.
D.It is the baseline for the rest of development.
Correct:C D

IBM   000-839   certification 000-839   000-839 examen   000-839

NO.16 What relationship(s) can a work product have to a task?
A.input only
B.output only
C.input and output
D.optional input, mandatory input, and output
Correct:D

IBM   000-839   certification 000-839   000-839 examen   000-839

NO.17 In planning for iterative development, the Project Plan is referred to as a _____.
A.roadmap
B.fine-grained plan
C.detailed plan
D.risk management tool
Correct:A

IBM   000-839   certification 000-839   000-839 examen   000-839

NO.18 Which is part of the evaluation criteria for successful completion of the Elaboration phase?
A.A final set of requirements is agreed upon.
B.All detailed design documents are reviewed.
C.The architecture is stable.
D.Less than 50% of project budget is expended.
Correct:C

IBM   000-839   certification 000-839   000-839 examen   000-839

NO.19 Which two concepts guide iterative development? (Choose two.)
A.early completion of simple features, to show progress to the customer
B.informal plans, allowing features to be moved to future iterations
C.early baselining of architecture, allowing stability in planning, content and organization
D.scope validation by stakeholders, to account for their needs
Correct:C D

IBM   000-839   certification 000-839   000-839 examen   000-839

NO.20 Which is a fine-grained plan?
A.Software Development Plan
B.Business Case
C.Iteration Plan
D.Risk Management Plan
Correct:C

IBM   000-839   certification 000-839   000-839 examen   000-839

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Code d'Examen: 000-807
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Web Services Dev for IBM Web Sphere App Server V6.1)
Questions et réponses: 110 Q&As

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NO.1 Which interface in SAAJ generically represents any literal part in a SOAP message?
A. javax.xml.soap.Text
B. javax.xml.soap.Node
C. javax.xml.soap.DetailEntry
D. javax.xml.soap.SOAPElement
E. javax.xml.soap.SOAPBodyElement
Answer: D

certification IBM   000-807 examen   000-807

NO.2 Which is NOT a prerequisite for a service implementation defined in a Session EJB Web service?
A. The Session EJB must have a default public constructor.
B. The remote interface of the Session EJB must implement the endpoint interface.
C. The Session EJB must have a default EJB create method.
D. The Session EJB must have one or more remote methods.
Answer: B

IBM   certification 000-807   000-807 examen   000-807   000-807

NO.3 When creating an EJB Web service using the WSDL2Java command, what must be included on the
command line?
A. type ejb
B. implementation ejb
C. container ejb
D. create ejb
Answer: C

IBM   000-807 examen   000-807   000-807   000-807

NO.4 For the following SOAP fault, which is a mandatory field that contains a human-readable description
of the fault occurred?<SOAP-ENV:Fault xmlns=""> <faultcode> value1 </faultcode> <faultstring> value2
</faultstring><faultactor> value3 </faultactor><detail> <e:faultNod xmlns:e="http://faultNod"><e:message>
value4 </e:message><e:errorcode> value5 </errorcode>
</e:faultNod> </detail> </SOAP-ENV:Fault>
A. value1
B. value2
C. value3
D. value4
E. value5
Answer: B

IBM   certification 000-807   certification 000-807   000-807

NO.5 Which server-side configuration task should be performed to reduce the chances of a replay attack?
A. Add a binary security token in the Request Generator Configuration -> Security Token section
B. Require a timestamp in the Request Consumer Configuration -> Add Timestamp section
C. Add a nonce word to encrypted parts, through the Request Generator Configuration -> Confidentiality
section
D. Require a nonce word in digital signatures, through the Request Consumer Configuration -> Required
Integrity section
Answer: D

certification IBM   000-807   certification 000-807

NO.6 Which command line utility can be use to create a Web service using a bottom-up approach?
A. Java2WSDL
B. WSDL2Java
C. Java2WS
D. XML2WSDL
Answer: A

IBM   certification 000-807   certification 000-807   000-807   certification 000-807   000-807

NO.7 Which three are WS-Security wizards in Rational Application Developer V7.0?
A. Add XML Encryption
B. Add XML Signature
C. Add WS Federation
D. Add WS Secure Conversation
E. Add WS Security Policy
F. Add Stand Alone Security Token
G. Add SAML Support
Answer: ABF

IBM   000-807   000-807 examen   000-807 examen

NO.8 In addition to usernametoken and digestvalue, which other predefined keywords are supported by
WebSphere Application Server for encryption?
A. bodycontent
B. body
C. timestamp
D. passwordtoken
Answer: A

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NO.9 In WebSphere Application Server V6.1, 'trust method' is part of which collection?
A. Required Integrity
B. Required Confidentiality
C. Required security token
D. Caller
E. Add time stamp
Answer: D

IBM   000-807   000-807   000-807   certification 000-807

NO.10 Several methods have been proposed for supporting binary data in Web services. Which method is
effectively obsolete at this point?
A. Base 64 Encoding
B. SOAP with Attachments (SwA)
C. WS-Attachments with Direct Internet Message Encapsulation (DIME)
D. Message Transmission Optimization Mechanism (MTOM)
Answer: C

IBM examen   000-807   certification 000-807   000-807 examen   000-807

NO.11 What are the prerequisites for creating a Web service from an EJB using SOAP/HTTP transport in
Rational Application Developer V7.0?
A. Create an EAR project Create an EJB project and add it to the EAR project Create or import an
enterprise bean into the EJB project Deploy the enterprise bean Create an EJB router project
B. Create an EAR project Create an EJB project and add it to the EAR project Create or import an
enterprise bean into the EJB project
C. Create an EJB project Create or import an enterprise bean into the EJB projectDeploy the enterprise
beanCreate a Web project
D. Create an EAR projectCreate an EJB project and add it to the EAR project Create or import an
enterprise bean into the EJB projectCreate an EJB router projectDeploy the router project
Answer: B

IBM   certification 000-807   000-807   000-807   000-807 examen

NO.12 In which scenario should Web service traffic be secured at the transport level over the message level?
A. Security information must be kept intact from the client to the Web service, regardless of the underlying
transport.
B. Messages are passed between multiple intermediaries, multiple transports.
C. Only parts of the message need to be kept confidential.
D. High performance and security are top concerns.
Answer: D

IBM examen   000-807 examen   000-807   000-807 examen   000-807

NO.13 What is out of scope for the JSR 921 specification?
A. SOAP 1.1 and SOAP with Attachments (SwA)
B. WSDL 1.1
C. UDDI 1.0
D. Basic reliable message semantics
Answer: D

IBM   certification 000-807   000-807   000-807   000-807

NO.14 By default, which security token type does WebSphere Application Server V6.1 NOT support?
A. username token
B. binary security token, including the X.509 certificate
C. LTPA token
D. Kerberos token
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which task can the _setProperty method in the javax.xml.rpc.Stub interface be used to perform?
A. To configure the document style in the SOAP message
B. To change the parameter of a Web service operation
C. To modify the target service endpoint address
D. To enable Transport Level Security (TLS)
Answer: C

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NO.16 The following WSDL snippet represents which message transmission style?<wsdl:portType .... >
<wsdl:operation name="someOperation"> <wsdl:output name="oname" message="somename"/>
<wsdl:input name="iname" message="anothername"/> </wsdl:operation> </wsdl:portType .... >
A. One-way
B. Request-response
C. Solicit-response
D. Notification
Answer: C

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NO.17 What is the output of the Bean2WebService tool?
A. A Service Endpoint Interface (SEI) file
B. An EAR file
C. A WSDL file
D. web.xml and webservices.xml files
Answer: B

certification IBM   000-807   000-807 examen

NO.18 WSDL faults are mapped to which three Java classes?
A. javax.wsdl.WSDLFault
B. javax.wsdl.WSDLException
C. java.rmi.RemoteException
D. javax.xml.rpc.handler.Exception
E. javax.xml.rpc.soap.SOAPFaultException
F. Service-specific Java exception
Answer: CEF

IBM   certification 000-807   000-807   certification 000-807

NO.19 In a top-down creation of a Web service, what does the WSDL portType map to?
A. A Java method invocation
B. A Stateless session EJB
C. A JAX-RPC mapping
D. A Service Endpoint Interface (SEI)
Answer: D

IBM   000-807   000-807 examen

NO.20 Which describes a Java return type for a Java method?
A. <wsdl:message>
B. <wsdl:part>
C. <wsdl:output>
D. <wsdl:fault>
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 000-136
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Rational Application Developer v7)
Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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NO.1 When creating a session bean, the default selection for the session bean is to create a remote client
view instead of a local client view. This is because:
A. Even though a local client view is available, it is a best practice to never use a local client view in a
session bean.
B. Session beans are normally used to implement facades, and as such, require remote interfaces as
opposed to local interfaces.
C. A remote client view is easier to use.
D. Local client view for session beans has been deprecated.
Answer: B

IBM   000-136   000-136   certification 000-136   000-136 examen

NO.2 Which view best displays the list of all callers and callees of a selected method?
A. Call Hierarchy
B. Hierarchy
C. Outline
D. Package Explorer
Answer: A

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NO.3 A developer has closed a view in the Java perspective in the workbench.
What can the developer select to recover the original Java perspective layout?
A. Window > Delete Perspective
B. Workbench > Use Defaults
C. Window > Reset Perspective
D. File > Recover Defaults
Answer: C

IBM examen   000-136 examen   certification 000-136   000-136

NO.4 Which statement is true about the Software Analysis feature?
A. It provides a runtime environment to test web resources.
B. It is used to debug a wide range of applications.
C. It assists in gathering data and metrics on applications that are running.
D. It can perform automated code reviews without executing applications.
Answer: D

IBM examen   000-136 examen   certification 000-136   000-136   000-136 examen   000-136

NO.5 How many perspectives can a developer interact with at a time in each workbench window?
A. as many as needed if the perspectives are organized as Views
B. as many as needed by selecting File > Switch Perspective
C. only one
D. one per View
Answer: C

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NO.6 A developer has made multiple changes to a Java file. How can the developer switch back to an earlier
version of the file?
A. context pop-up menu > Compare with > Local history
B. context pop-up menu > Edit > Reset
C. context pop-up menu > Replace With > Local history
D. File > Replace with Previous
Answer: C

IBM examen   000-136   certification 000-136

NO.7 What can a developer manage using Rational Application Developer?
A. a single workspace per workbench
B. multiple workspaces per workbench by switching between workspaces
C. multiple workspaces per workbench by organizing them as views
D. multiple workspaces per workbench with additional licenses
Answer: B

IBM   certification 000-136   000-136 examen   000-136   000-136

NO.8 A developer has deleted a file from a Java package in a workspace and would like to recover it.
What must the developer do after selecting the Java package?
A. use the context pop-up menu option "Restore from Local History"
B. use the context pop-up menu option "Recover from File System"
C. click File > Deleted files and select the file
D. click File > Undo
Answer: A

certification IBM   000-136 examen   000-136

NO.9 What are three methods of importing a file from the file system to a Java package in the workbench?
(Choose three.)
A. drag and drop the file from the file system to the package in the workbench
B. use the Import wizard from the File menu in the workbench
C. use the context pop-up menu on the package in the workbench and select Import
D. select Search > File in the workbench and then use the Import tab
E. use the context pop-up menu on the file in the file system and select Import to Workbench
Answer: ABC

IBM examen   000-136   000-136   000-136

NO.10 Which application development framework is used to develop highly available, reliable, scalable, and
secure Web and client-server applications in Java?
A. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
B. Standard Widget Toolkit (SWT)
C. Java Enterprise Edition (JavaEE)
D. Java Naming and Directory Interface (JNDI)
Answer: C

IBM   000-136 examen   000-136   000-136   000-136

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Code d'Examen: 000-551
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Certified Specialist - IBM Optim Implementation for Dist )
Questions et réponses: 122 Q&As

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NO.1 When designing and building storage profiles that will include writing archived data to other than Tier 1
storage (e.g., Tape, WORM drive), which statement is correct?
A.All disk type and nondisk storage devices are fully supported by Optim.
B.Make sure to implement Archive File splitting, as Optim can only write split archive files to nondisk type
storage devices.
C.Make sure that archive files are no larger than 100 MB, as all nondisk supported storage devices can
only store data in 100 MB segments.
D.Local disk processing space is a consideration, since archive data may need to be written first to local
disk before any other storage devices.
Answer:D

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NO.2 What are two possible locations where would you could find the fetch strategy chosen by Attunity when
working with an extended data source? (Choose two.)
A.nav.log
B.irpcd.log
C.optdbg.xml
D.db2trc file
E.admin_svc.log
Answer:A C

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NO.3 Given the choices shown below for storage: SAN, NAS, optical disk, Content Addressed Storage, and
tape Which archive data storage and access discussion should the IBM Optim implementation lead have
with the client project leads?
A.The lower cost storage medium will usually provide inadequate access to the archived data.
B.Always start with the least expensive storage medium and then increase access speed capabilities
based upon testing.
C.The archive access and reporting requirements should drive the decisions around archive storage.
D.Always start with the fastest storage medium and then move to slower medium over the data life cycle.
Answer:C

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NO.4 One Optim report provides detailed performance information about your Archive, Extract and Delete
processes, including basic table and selection criteria information as defined in the Access Definition, the
number of key values used to retrieve rows, and DBMS Access statistical information. This report is
essential for tuning your Optim processes. What is the name of this report and where do you indicate that
Optim produce the report?
A.Process Report; selected for creation on the Archive or Extract Process Request.
B.Show Steps Report; provided on Access Definition Editor.
C.Statistical Report; selected for creation on the Archive or Extract Process Request.
D.File Access Definition Report; selected for use on the Archive Process Request.
Answer:C

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button. In what Optim Implementation Methodology deliverable would the information
shown in the exhibit be documented?
A.Solution Design
B.Installation Step by Step Guide
C.Requiremements Mapping
D.Production Run Book
Answer:A

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NO.6 You are installing IBM Optim into an Oracle environment. Which statement is correct about user
permissions?
A.The installation user requires the DBA role.
B.The installation user is the only user that can run Optim.
C.The installation user's permissions must be deleted once the installation is complete and all DB Aliases
are created .
D.The installation user must have the SELECT ANY DICTIONARY role, unless the Oracle
07_DICTIONARY _ACCESSIBILITY initialization parameter is set.
Answer:D

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NO.7 An Archive File Collection is a list of Archive Files that are treated as a single data source by Open Data
Manager (ODM). Which two statements are true regarding Archive Collections? (Choose two.)
A.Use the Collections tab on the Archive Request Editor to specify the collection(s) in which the Archive
File should be added automatically.
B.An Archive File may belong to multiple Archive Collections, and an Archive Collection may contain
multiple Archive Files.
C.Archive Files contained within a collection do not need to be registered in the Archive Directory.
D.ODM, by default, processes the Archive Files in the collections in ascending date order based on the
dates the Archive Files were created.
E.An Archive File containing multiple tables with the same names and creator ids, but with different DB
Aliases, may be stored in an Archive Collection.
Answer:A B

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NO.8 When positioning ODM as a mechanism to view archived data, which two capabilities would you
promote? (Choose two.)
A.Only ODM provides for access to individual archive files and collections of archive files.
B.ODM will provide for the same levels of accessibility regardless of the underlying storage medium.
C.ODM can implement row level security for archive data within the Attunity Workspace layer.
D.ODM facilitates Native Application Access.
E.ODM can be run stand-alone without Optim on the same machine.
Answer:A D

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NO.9 The Optim Initialization Exit facility provides which three benefits? (Choose three.)
A.Observes what is being done by a given user at various points in a programs logic.
B.Automates the reporting of Optim requests that fail.
C.Ensures that the users request meets your company security standards.
D.Changes the request, if needed, to pass your company standards or forbids the request altogether.
E.Adds support to Optim for new code pages.
Answer:A C D

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NO.10 You can specify the default minimum retention period for protecting Archive Files on Centera from
deletion. How is the minimum retention period calculated?
A.from the time Centera copies the file
B.from the time the Archive Process copies the file to Centera
C.from the time that the Archive Process copies the file to the local file system
D.from the time Centera copies the file from the local file system
Answer:B

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NO.11 Given the command line syntax shown below: PR0CMND /R JOB=PERSONNEL' OUTPUT=PER.TXT
MONITOR+ QUIET+ Which task is performed?
A.Runs the job named PERSONNEL, places the process report output in a file named PER.TXT, and
displays prompts and error dialogs during the process.
B.Schedules a job named PERSONNEL, stores the extracted data in a file named PER.TXT, and displays
information dialogs during the process.
C.Runs the job named PERSONNEL, places the process report output in a file named PER.TXT, and
displays information dialogs during the process.
D.Schedules the job named PERSONNEL, stores the extracted data in a file named PER.TXT, and
displays prompts and error dialogs during the process.
Answer:C

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NO.12 What is the primary purpose of the Optim Relationship Index Analyzer Dialog?
A.It automatically creates indexes regardless of the user's rights on the tables involved in relationships
used in all access definitions stored in an Optim Repository.
B.It reviews the last time the RDBMS statistics were updated for tables used in an access definition and
automatically issues the commands to update them if they have not been run since the last archive.
C.It analyzes the index b-trees and if they are inefficient, will drop and rebuild the index automatically or
can be scheduled.
D.It analyzes DBMS indexes for relationships used with the Access Definition and to create any needed
indexes, if the user has the correct privileges in the database.
Answer:D

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NO.13 Which document should be reviewed and validated at the end of the design and build phase?
A.Optim configurations document
B.solution design document
C.project success measures document
D.testing criteria document
Answer:B

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NO.14 Click the Exhibit button. Referring to the exhibit, what would be a success criteria for the given use
case?
A.The performance of the application will improve.
B.The archive, purge, and all related processes for the Orders object completes in less than six hours.
C.The Optim processing will remove old Order data from the database and be accessible using ODM.
D.The weekly archive and purge processing completes in six hours or less.
Answer:B

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NO.15 What are two prerequisites to an Optim archiving Project Kickoff meeting? (Choose two.)
A.Obtain all Optim software required for project.
B.Set up hardware for all environment installations.
C.Review the Optim and application specific documentation.
D.Finalize all archiving requirements.
E.Choose the project sponsor.
Answer:A C

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NO.16 Click the Exhibit button. Which Optim high level architecture area is missing from the exhibit for an
archiving project requiring a Collection of Archive Files for data reporting and viewing?
A.Optim Server
B.Extended Data Source Manager
C.WebSphere Application Server
D.ODM Server
Answer:D

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NO.17 Who are two project team members on an Optim Data Privacy project that would impact the data
privacy specific requirements? (Choose two.)
A.client's data privacy compliance representative(s)
B.application developers that have knowledge of the data model
C.storage experts
D.client business subject matter experts (SME) with knowledge of any local or international data privacy
requirements
E.systems architecture team
Answer:A D

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NO.18 Click the Exhibit button. Given this information from the Relationships tab of an Access Definition, and
the information from this Show Steps report in the exhibit, why is the STATE_LOOKUP table listed as
UNTRAVERSED?
A.There is no active relationship for the STATE_LOOKUP table.
B.Q2 needs to be activated between SALES and STATE_LOOKUP.
C.Q1 needs to be de-activated between SALES and STATE_LOOKUP.
D.The relationship between SALES and STATE_LOOKUP is unselected.
Answer:B

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NO.19 When performing an archive process that uses a Storage Profile, which action could be performed as a
result of using the storage profile?
A.Creates a connection to the database for use by the storage management device.
B.Creates a connection to the storage management device and copies an Archive File to a backup device.
C.Creates a storage allocation parameter for the storage or file management system.
D.Creates a duplicate of the existing information from the Archive Repository on the storage management
device.
Answer:B

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NO.20 What are three valid levels of Optim Security? (Choose three.)
A.Database Security
B.Object Security
C.Functional Security
D.Network Security
E.Archive File Security
Answer:B C E

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NO.21 Which requirement statement should raise a "red flag" within the Requirements Analysis Phase?
A.The business is seeking to privatize all personally identifiable information (PII) within the application.
B.Archiving of orders and associated data, including file attachments, older than 10 years.
C.Access to the archives just like a database.
D.Daily processing of archives from production.
Answer:C

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NO.22 In Optim implementations, which object aligns with the term "business object"?
A.Archive Request
B.Archive Reporting Tool
C.Access Definition
D.Archive File Collection
Answer:C

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NO.23 You have exported an Archive Request and checked the 'export subordinate definitions' box. Which
types of objects might you expect to find in the export file?
A.Archive Request, Access Definition, Optim Relationships, Optim Primary Keys
B.Archive Request and Access Definition only
C.Archive Request, Access Definition, and Table Map
D.Archive Request, Access Definition, Storage Profile, Report Request
Answer:D

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NO.24 In Attunity, where is the metadata stored?
A.On the server where IRPCD is running.
B.In XML files where it can be manually updated.
C.In the Optim Directory where the DB Alias is found.
D.On the client where Attunity Studio is running.
Answer:A

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NO.25 When using InfoSphere Federation Server to access Optim extended data sources, what must be
created to define a federated object?
A.a wrapper, a system definition, a user mapping, and a nickname
B.a wrapper, a server definition, a user mapping, and a DB Alias
C.a wrapper, a system definition, a nickname, and a DB Alias
D.a wrapper, a server definition, a user mapping, and a nickname
Answer:D

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NO.26 Which performance enhancement do multiple database connections provide when used during an
extract or archive?
A.Multiple database connections allow you to extract/archive rows from multiple tables simultaneously.
B.Multiple database connections allow you to extract/archive rows from a single table concurrently.
C.Multiple database connections allow you to extract/archive rows only from Reference Tables
simultaneously.
D.Multiple database connections cannot be used during extract or archive, only during delete.
Answer:B

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NO.27 Which statement is correct with respect to setting expectations around archive access and reporting?
A.Access to archive data performs just like a database.
B.ODM must be used to access the archives.
C.Access using ODM provides nearline access to archived data.
D.Archive data access should rarely be required.
Answer:C

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NO.28 Why is it important to use the multiple column feature of Optim masking functions (e.g., Lookup,
Hash_Lookup) when using those functions to mask multiple fields in a table?
A.Use of the multiple column feature makes coding a column map much easier.
B.Use of this feature is only a matter of preference.
C.The multiple column feature allows you to concatenate multiple columns into a single column.
D.This feature significantly improves performance during the masking process.
Answer:D

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NO.29 You have installed the Optim Server on an AIX system. The system is configured with various internal
and external storage options attached to the server. Where should the Optim Temporary Work folder be
placed?
A.the attached archive appliance
B.the attached NAS device
C.the system's internal disk drives
D.the attached SAN device
Answer:C

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NO.30 What does an Access Control List protect?
A.the Optim program
B.nav_util
C.Optim Configuration tasks
D.any Optim object
Answer:D

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