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Code d'Examen: HP0-Y11
Nom d'Examen: HP (ProCurve Security 7.31)
Questions et réponses: 132 Q&As

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NO.1 Which statement describing dynamic VLAN assignment for 802.1X authenticator ports on ProCurve
switches is correct?
A. If a GVRP-learned VLAN is used, the RADIUS server must specify that attribute.
B. The VLAN used may be statically defined on the switch or learned through GVRP.
C. If a client fails authentication, the port is reassigned to the Secure Management VLAN.
D. If a client is authenticated, but no VLAN attribute is returned by a RADIUS server, the switch blocks the
port.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which EAP method is considered the least secure solution for implementing 802.1X user
authentication on a wireless LAN?
A. SIM
B. MD5
C. TTLS
D. FAST
E. LEAP
F. PEAP
Answer: B

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NO.3 You have ProCurve Identity Driven Manager currently deployed in your network and have recently
modified an Access Profile. Which task should you perform next?
A. Restart the IDM Agent.
B. Deploy the configuration.
C. Run the Secure Access Wizard.
D. Update the Access Policy Groups.
E. Start Active Directory synchronization.
F. Rediscover switches affected by the changes.
Answer: B

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NO.4 A customer calls you and describes a switch management access problem involving SSH. The
customer indicates that he is denied access after supplying the login credentials. The customer is using a
RADIUS server for centralized authentication, and has used the ping command to verify that the SSH
client, switch, and RADIUS server are all reachable. What is a potential cause of this problem?
A. A self-signed digital certificate has not been installed on the switch.
B. SSH has not been configured for the login access level on the switch.
C. A remote-access policy on the RADIUS server has not been configured to support the CHAP protocol.
D. The digital certificate of the public Certificate Authority used by the switch has not been installed in the
SSH client.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which two EAP methods support tunneling of a weaker authentication method such as MS-CHAPv2?
A. TLS and SIM
B. PAP and SPAP
C. LEAP and FAST
D. PEAP and TTLS
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is a capability of the Secure Access Wizard supported by ProCurve Identity Driven Manager?
A. It configures 802.1X authenticator ports and RADIUS server settings on a switch.
B. It verifies the integrity of the ProCurve Identity Driven Manager database using Active Directory.
C. It conceals all security-related credentials stored in the switch configuration before backing up the file.
D. It checks a switch configuration file's 802.1X, Web, or MAC authentication settings for consistency and
reports any
errors.
Answer:A

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NO.7 Network security can be described in terms of multiple layers of security. Which action describes a
perimeter security measure?
A. limiting switch access to SSH
B. deploying 802.1X authentication
C. installing an Intrusion Prevention System
D. using a secure operating system for network applications
Answer: C

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NO.8 Authentication of switch management or general network users can involve multiple network
components. Which statement describing these network components is correct?
A. A user directory server operates as the policy enforcement point.
B. The authentication server is also known as the policy decision point.
C. A ProCurve switch functions as a policy repository for switch management access using a remote user
account.
D. A RADIUS access-accept message is used by a client to acknowledge authentication settings
assigned by the server.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which protocols are supported by a ProCurve switch for communication with a RADIUS server that is
used to authenticate 802.1X supplicants? (Select two.)
A. EAP-RADIUS
B. MD5-RADIUS
C. CHAP-RADIUS
D. PAP-SPAP-RADIUS
E. MS-CHAPv2-RADIUS
Answer:AC

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NO.10 Which statements describing the ProCurve switch debug facility are correct? (Select two.)
A. The instrumentation monitor must be enabled first.
B. Specific debug message categories can be selectively enabled.
C. The debug destinations can be set to a session window and a Syslog server concurrently.
D. Debug messages have the same format as standard Event Log messages including the event type
and timestamp.
Answer: BC

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NO.11 Which statements describing Web authentication support on ProCurve switches are correct? (Select
two.)
A. An SSL-based login is required.
B. It can be configured on ports that also have MAC authentication assigned.
C. A successfully authenticated user can be redirected to a configurable URL.
D. The switch's built-in DHCP, ARP, and DNS services assist with Web authentication while a port is in
the authenticating state.
E. When a client connects to a Web authenticator port and a Web browser is opened, the Web browser is
automatically redirected to the switch's Web-Auth home page.
Answer: CD

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NO.12 You have just installed two ProCurve 5406zl switches, one on the second floor and one on the third
floor of your office. You are using 802.1X for port-access authentication. All users have an 802.1X
supplicant installed on their computers and you have configured a RADIUS server with a remote access
policy for each floor. Shortly after connecting the computers, users on the second floor report that they
cannot access any network resources. You can ping the RADIUS server from both switches, but when
you check the RADIUS log, you see authentication requests coming only from the third floor switch. Why
are the second floor users unable to connect to the network?
A. The IP address of the RADIUS server has not been configured on the second floor switch.
B. The second floor computers are using the wrong EAP type for authentication with the RADIUS server.
C. The shared secret configured on the second floor switch does not match the shared secret configured
on the RADIUS server.
D. No default gateway has been configured on the second floor switch, therefore no authentication
requests can reach the RADIUS server.
Answer:A

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NO.13 A university shares a core routing switch between two departments. Each department has a separate
ProCurve edge switch deployed and neither department wants the other to have management access to
their respective switch. Which security measures can prevent management access by the respective
departments? (Select three.)
A. Enable the Privilege Mode option.
B. Configure Authorized IP Managers.
C. Define Secure Management VLANs.
D. Implement Command Authorization.
E. Use RADIUS authentication with separate policies.
Answer: BCE

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NO.14 What is an operational difference between the TLS and MD5 EAP methods?
A. TLS uses a challenge/handshake mechanism for authentication; MD5 uses certificates for
authentication.
B. TLS uses a challenge/handshake mechanism for authentication and encryption; MD5 uses certificates
for authentication and encryption.
C. TLS uses digital certificates for mutual authentication; MD5 uses a challenge/handshake mechanism
to authenticate the client to the server.
D. TLS uses a name and password along with digital certificates to produce a session key; MD5 uses a
name and password to produce a session key.
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which statements describing MAC authentication on ProCurve switches are correct? (Select two.)
A. It can be configured on the same port with Web authentication and 802.1X authentication.
B. The device's MAC address is sent to the RADIUS server as the user name and password.
C. The switch's built-in DHCP server initially assigns an IP address in the 192.168.0.0 private subnet.
D. The switch automatically initiates user authentication of a device when the device communicates on a
MAC authenticator port.
E. Configuration involves defining ports as MAC authenticators, the RADIUS authentication protocol to
use, and then activating the ports for MAC authentication operation.
Answer: BD

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NO.16 Which EAP methods support authentication of an 802.1X supplicant based on a user's name and
password? (Select two.)
A. SIM
B. TLS
C. TTLS
D. SPAP
E. PEAP
F. CHAP
Answer: CE

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NO.17 Which statement describing Web authentication support on the ProCurve Switch 5400zl series is
correct?
A. User credentials or a digital certificate can authenticate the client.
B. It is mutually exclusive of other authentication methods on the same port.
C. After successful user authentication, a port is assigned to a VLAN based on an order of priority.
D. If a port is configured to support multiple users, different static untagged VLANs can be assigned
concurrently.
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which statements describing the 802.1X user authentication process are correct? (Select two.)
A. The supplicant and authentication server must support the same EAP method for the authentication
process to proceed.
B. A switch passes EAP messages between the supplicant and authentication switch without modification
or translation.
C. After a RADIUS server confirms a user is authenticated, the switch sends an EAP-Success message
and sets the port state to authorized.
D. Different RADIUS servers must be configured on the switch if authentication of both switch
management users and 802.1X supplicants will be performed.
E. If a supplicant receives an EAP-Request message specifying a particular EAP method to be supported,
the authentication session is closed if the supplicant does not support that EAP method.
Answer:AC

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NO.19 You want to use 802.1X port-access authentication to assign Microsoft Active Directory users to a
particular VLAN
based on user credentials. Which condition must exist?
A. The VLAN ID must exist on the switch.
B. The VLAN ID must be defined in a GVRP configuration.
C. The port through which the user is authenticating must be defined as a member of the VLAN.
D. The user must be a member of an Active Directory Group that has an associated RADIUS remote-
access policy.
Answer:A

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NO.20 Click the Exhibit button.
The RADIUS server and switch are correctly configured. The switch has the VLAN assignments and
port-access
commands configured, as shown in the diagram.
What happens to port 10 after the user connects to the network?
A. remains in an unauthorized state
B. becomes a member of VLAN 20
C. becomes a member of VLAN 25
D. becomes a member of VLAN 200
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: HP0-311
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP OpenView TeMIP)
Questions et réponses: 56 Q&As

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NO.1 An event can be lost in TeMIP if _______. Select TWO.
A.no GetEvent has been issued for the managed object of this event
B.there is no Real Time View monitoring the managed object of this event
C.a Low Level Filter discarded this event
D.the connection with the Oracle database has been lost
E.a security profile has blocked the collection of this event
Answer:A C

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NO.2 The Notify is a directive of the _______ class and is handled by the _______ Management Module.
A.notification, Notification FM
B.domain, Domain FM
C.domain, Notification FM
D.entity, Notification FM
Answer:C

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NO.3 The Low Level Filters are child classes of the _______ global class and handled by the _______
Management Module.
A.Operation Context, Alarm Handling FM
B.Domain, Alarms FM
C.MCC, Event Filtering FM
D.TeMIP, Framework FM
Answer:C

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NO.4 Based on directive cascading, what is the alarm collection chain?
A.RESUME OC + NOTIFY DOMAIN + GETEVENT entity
B.CREATE AO+ GETEVENT entity
C.CREATE entity + DISPATCH event + LISTEN event
D.ENABLE OC
Answer:A

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NO.5 What is the directive that enables the reception of events corresponding to a specific entity?
A.notify
B.getevent
C.summarize
D.subscribe
Answer:B

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Code d'Examen: HP0-794
Nom d'Examen: HP (Implementing Windows Server 2003 on HP ProLiant Cluster Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 69 Q&As

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NO.1 The HP ProLiant DL380 Packaged Cluster with MSA1000 supports how many additional storage
enclosures?
A.0
B.1
C.2
D.3
Correct:C

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NO.2 What is least likely to fail in a Windows Server 2003 network environment?
A.hardware
B.applications
C.operating system
D.operational issues
E.infrastructure (building, power, network)
Correct:A

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NO.3 Which description accurately depicts an HP Multi-Server Card?
A.It supports up to 64 network devices within a single UPS group and provides unattended, sequential
shutdown of every device in that group, regardless of the operating system.
B.It enables each load segment to function as a separate UPS with individual shutdown schedules and
load segment configurations.
C.It detects and warns users of power failures and manages a safe system shutdown before the backup
power supply is exhausted.
D.It allows for the safe installation of new batteries through the front panel, without powering down the
connected equipment.
Correct:B

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NO.4 Which HP PCI-to-Fibre Channel host bus adapter (HBA) uses the small form factor transceiver
connection and supports the MSA1000?
A.32-bit/33MHz HBA using the Tachyon chipset
B.64-bit/33MHz HBA using the Emulex chipset
C.64-bit/66MHz FCA-2101 HBA using the QLogic chipset
D.64-bit/66MHz HBA using the Tachyon chipset
Correct:C

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NO.5 Which tasks have been identified by HP as important when planning network capacity and the
graceful failover and failback of cluster resources and services? Ensure that: ______. Select TWO.
A.each cluster node has processors of sufficient speed to handle the maximum client load of the entire
cluster
B.the surviving node network speed and protocol will handle the maximum number of I/Os necessary to
support critical services
C.the throughput of the NIC on the surviving node is sufficient to handle the maximum network load for
peak load cluster services
D.each individual cluster node can handle the maximum number of clients that can attach to the cluster
E.the shared storage capacity is sufficient to handle the load of the entire cluster
Correct:B D

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NO.6 The ProLiant DL380 Packaged Cluster with MSA500 supports how many additional storage
enclosures?
A.0
B.1
C.2
D.3
Correct:C

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NO.7 What is the maximum number of drive letters per cluster for shared drives with Microsoft
Windows Server 2003?
A.18
B.19
C.20
D.23
Correct:D

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NO.8 Cluster.exe can be used to _______.
A.launch the Cluster Monitor utility
B.administer clusters
C.launch Microsoft Cluster Administrator
D.power down the cluster
Correct:B

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NO.9 Which adjustments should be made to the network adapter that has been set to Internal Cluster
Communications Only? Select THREE.
A.Designate the adapter as the primary NIC in a fault-tolerant team.
B.Remove all protocols other than TCP/IP and disable the Media Sense feature.
C.Set the adapter to a specific speed of 10Mb/s or 100Mb/s.
D.Set the adapter to use NetBIOS.
E.Set the adapter duplex mode to half duplex.
F.Use the auto-detect setting on the network adapter for the private interconnect.
Correct:B C E

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NO.10 Which SQL Server clustering requirement changed between SQL 7.0 and SQL 2000?
A.Only licenses for the first node in the cluster were required for SQL 7.0; all nodes must have licenses for
SQL 2000.
B.Multiple virtual SQL servers could not run on the same set of disks for SQL 7.0, but can run on the same
set of disks for SQL 2000.
C.Binaries are on the shared disk for SQL 7.0, but on the local disk for SQL 2000.
D.Microsoft Transaction Server and Microsoft Queue Manager are no longer included as components of
SQL 2000.
Correct:C

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Code d'Examen: HP0-J15
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP StorageWorks MASE 2088 Delta Exam)
Questions et réponses: 160 Q&As

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NO.1 Under ideal operating conditions, what is the maximum supported, long-wave transceiver distance with
B or C-Series Switches and 4Gb SFPs?
A: 4km
B: 10km
C: 35km
D: 100km
Correct Answers: B

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NO.2 Which zoning enforcement types do Fibre Channel switches provide to protect against unauthorized
access? (Select two.)
A:access authorization
B:port-zoning authentication
C:RADIUS server authentication
D:directory access authorization
E:soft-plus zoning by login authentication
Correct Answers: A, E

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NO.3 What is an advantage of iSCSI when compared to Fibre Channel?
A: less protocol overhead
B: no additional customer knowledge required
C: easily provisioned through HP Storage Essentials SRM
D: existing Ethernet infrastructure can be used to create a SAN
Correct Answers: D

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NO.4 Brocade Secure Fabric OS is running on a fabric with four switches. If you are logged in to one of the
switches and change the Admin password, which switch or switches will have the password changed?
A: all the switches
B: LDAP-enabled switches only
C: only the switch you are logged in to
D: only switches connected to the Ethernet
Correct Answers: A

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NO.5 Which SAN switch management tool, previously only available as an embedded version, is now
separately available on CD?
A: Emulex EZpilot
B: McData HAFM
C: Cisco Fabric Manager
D: Brocade Fabric Watch
Correct Answers: C

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NO.6 Which SAN services are provided by the HP StorageWorks 400 Multi-Protocol Router (MPR)? (Select
two.)
A:ISL zoning
B:FCIP tunneling
C:IP-IP subnet routing
D:iSCSI-FC translation
E:FC-FC subnet routing
Correct Answers: B, E

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NO.7 A customer is expanding a SAN to 400 switch ports, but has limited rack space. Which single Director
switch model is recommended?
A: Cisco MDS 9509 Director
B: Cisco MDS 9513 Director
C: HP StorageWorks 4/500 SAN Director
D: HP StorageWorks 4/256 SAN Director
Correct Answers: B

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NO.8 Which tool would you use to quickly survey a SAN environment?
A: HP SAN Surveyor
B: HP SAN Designer
C: HP CommandView
D: HP SAN Visibility Tool
Correct Answers: D

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NO.9 Which tool helps you design a SAN that includes HP Blade servers?
A: SANsurfer
B: SAN Visibility
C: SAN Designer
D: Blade Designer
Correct Answers: C

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NO.10 What are benefits of logical fabrics? (Select three.)
A:port count reduction
B:easier administration
C:fabric service isolation
D:increased performance
E:fault propagation minimization
F:device sharing across logical fabrics
Correct Answers: C, E, F

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NO.11 How many drives can be held by the M6412 drive shelf?
A: 8
B: 12
C: 14
D: 16
Correct Answers: B

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NO.12 You are merging two fabrics and receive a fabric segmentation error that indicates the definition of a
zone object in one fabric is different from its definition in the other fabric. What can cause this error?
A: duplicate IDs
B: zone type mismatch
C: zone content mismatch
D: zone configuration mismatch
Correct Answers: C

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NO.13 In B-Series virtual fabrics, which feature allows you to access devices in another virtual fabric?
A: Inter-VSAN Routing
B: Inter-Fabric Routing
C: Cross-VSAN Routing
D: Cross-Fabric Routing
Correct Answers: B

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NO.14 John, your customer, has a SAN built on B-Series switches. He calls you because he heard about a
new feature which allows him to distribute administrator responsibilities among his staff. After research,
what is your recommendation to John?
A: Upgrade to Secure Fabric OS version 5.2.
B: Purchase the Advanced Administration license.
C: Implement Distributed Administration through Fabric Manager.
D: Implement Admin Domains available since Fabric OS version 5.2.
Correct Answers: D

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NO.15 A customer decides on HP c-Class BladeSystem as a corporate standard for servers. You must
implement SAN integration of the blades into a very large fabric. The customer is concerned about the
maximum switch count. Which interconnects will you recommend? (Select two.)
A:QLogic 4Gb Fabric Switch
B:Cisco MDS 9124e Fabric Switch
C:Emulex 4Gb Advanced SAN Switch
D:HP 4Gb Virtual Connect Fibre Channel Module
E:Brocade 4Gb SAN Switch in Access Gateway mode
Correct Answers: D, E

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NO.16 A customer wants to replicate data between two sites 200 km apart. Which HP SAN product would you
recommend?
A: MPX 100
B: MPX 110
C: MPR 100
D: MPR 110
Correct Answers: B

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NO.17 Which application can be used to set up network shares and provision iSCSI storage?
A: Brocade Fabric Manager
B: HP Data Protector Express
C: HP CommandView EVA 7.0
D: HP All-in-One Storage Manager
Correct Answers: D

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NO.18 How can you improve iSCSI host performance in a SAN?
A: Upgrade to CommandView 7.
B: Use NICs with TOE (TCP/IP Offload Engine).
C: Enable NPIV (N_Port ID Virtualization) support.
D: Disable SLP (Service Location Protocol) Service Agent.
Correct Answers: B

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NO.19 Which password authentication service can be used on Brocade switches in addition to the local switch
database?
A: NIS
B: LDAP
C: RADIUS
D: Kerberos
Correct Answers: C

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NO.20 Where do you find the essential security elements in B-Series Fibre Channel switches running
firmware v5.3.x?
A: base Fabric OS
B: Secure Fabric OS
C: ISL Trunking manager
D: switch port web interface
Correct Answers: A

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Code d'Examen: HP0-S15
Nom d'Examen: HP (Planning and Designing ProLiant Solutions for the Enterprise)
Questions et réponses: 135 Q&As

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NO.1 Which layer-two protocol provides neighbor device discovery and runs on all networking
devices such as routers, bridges and switches?
A.Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP)
B.Transmit Control Protocol (TCP)
C.Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)
D.Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
Correct:A

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NO.2 What is used by Integrated Lights-Out (iLO) to improve security? (Select two.)
A.XML scripting
B.Secure Shell (SSH)
C.Virtual password store
D.Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
E.Secure Task Execution (STE)
Correct:B D

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NO.3 What can be imported into the System Management Homepage to increase security?
A.local server certificate
B.encrypted password file
C.Secure Shell (SSH) public key
D.128bit RC4 encryption license
Correct:A

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NO.4 The following questions are asked during which part of the planning cycle? What is the
expected availability of the new solution? What is the projected role of the new server? What kind
of system management tools are required?
A.site survey
B.scope of work
C.needs analysis
D.implementation timeline
Correct:C

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NO.5 What benefit is provided from a fault-tolerant system?
A.99.99% availability
B.maximum availability regardless of the circumstances
C.clustering with failover processes and application monitoring
D.component level redundancy, with a limited percentage of downtime
Correct:B

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NO.6 Which management protocol is used by the Onboard Administrator for BladeSystem c-Class to
send event notifications for thresholds and faults to HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM)?
A.eXtended Management Layer (XML) protocol
B.Web-based Enterprise Management (WBEM)
C.Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI)
D.Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
Correct:D

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NO.7 What is one of the primary responsibilities of Integrated Lights-Out (iLO) in the server blade
p-class architecture?
A.Control the distribution of virtual IP-addresses and link them to the physical MAC addresses.
B.Control and regulate access to the power management module when using the RS-232 connection
method.
C.Monitor and control the communication on the network bus used by the power and enclosure
management module.
D.Assist in managing power resources by acting as an intelligent interface to the server blade
infrastructure and its power management module.
Correct:D

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NO.8 Which tool gives you an intuitive and secure interface to review in-depth information on
hardware configuration, performance metrics and system thresholds and is part of the ProLiant
Support Pack?
A.HP Control Tower
B.HP System Management Homepage
C.HP Performance Management agents
D.HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM)
Correct:B

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NO.9 What integrates with the System Management Homepage to enable network administrators to
maintain detailed server inventory and track historical configuration changes?
A.Version Control Agents (VCA)
B.HP Insight Diagnostics Online
C.Array Configuration Utility (ACU)
D.Open Services Event Manager (OSEM)
Correct:B

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NO.10 What is downloaded from an HP website when updating the patch database used by
Vulnerability and Patch Management (VPM)?
A.updated VPM software, if available
B.latest patches from different vendors
C.latest vulnerability scan definition files
D.newer version of the Radia patch agent, if available
Correct:C

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NO.11 When looking into HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM), an administrator detects an issue
with a c-Class server blade. However, in the Onboard Administrator, everything looks fine. What
could be the reason?
A.The Onboard Administrator is running in a different VLAN than the HP SIM server.
B.The c-Class server blades are running an older version of the HP management agents.
C.The Onboard Administrator status does not include information from the agents running on the blades.
D.The management link between the c-Class server blades and the Onboard Administrator is not
configured.
Correct:C

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NO.12 What do you need to access the Onboard Administrator for a BladeSystem c-Class enclosure
remotely? (Select two.)
A.a standard USB cable
B.an RS-232 serial cable
C.a compatible web browser
D.a terminal emulation program
E.the Onboard Administrator IP address
Correct:C E

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NO.13 Which feature in Intelligent Networking Pack (INP) allows the creation of groups inside a single
team, where each group is assigned one or more teamed ports?
A.fast path failover
B.router path failover
C.dual channel teaming
D.dual channel load balancing
Correct:C

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NO.14 What is the recommended method of configuring the access security control between HP
Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM) and the System Management Homepage (SMH)?
A.configure trust by name in HP SIM
B.configure trust by certificate in the SMH
C.import the SSH private key generated by HP SIM into SMH
D.synchronize the password files between SMH and HP SIM
Correct:B

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NO.15 Which application requires 100% uptime, where unavailability can have catastrophic business
impact?
A.mission-critical application
B.business-critical application
C.continuous effort application
D.disaster-recovery application
Correct:A

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NO.16 When configuring the authorizations for the System Management Homepage (SMH) on a Linux
server, what should the system manager do to allow access for the root user?
A.Create a password for root in SMH.
B.Add root to the administrators group in SMH.
C.Import the password file from Linux into SMH.
D.Enter the root username and password to log into SMH.
Correct:D

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NO.17 E-commerce sites are an example of which implementation?
A.mission-critical application
B.business-critical application
C.continuous effort application
D.disaster-recovery application
Correct:B

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NO.18 Which HP SAN design is recommended for anyone just starting with SAN technology?
A.HP standard design
B.variation of an HP standard design
C.flexible design using HP standard design
D.custom design using HP StorageWorks SAN design rules
Correct:A

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NO.19 What action does HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM) take when a blade server is identified
through another system in the same rack or enclosure?
A.The system is catalogued to be polled during the next discovery task
B.Associations are made between the blade server operating system to the next blade server operating
system using the Interconnect ID.
C.Associations are made between the iLO and the enclosure in which the system resides.
D.HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM) requests all relevant information about the blade server to the
HP BladeSystem Integrated Manager.
Correct:C

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NO.20 What is used to secure access to the System Management Homepage? (Select two.)
A.IP restriction
B.Secure Shell (SSH)
C.web-based secured login
D.SNMP community names
E.multiple login authentications
Correct:A C

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Code d'Examen: HP0-P19
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP-UX High Availability Using Serviceguard v18)
Questions et réponses: 145 Q&As

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NO.1 Which components are considered potential single points of failure within a single HP-UX server?
(Select four.)
A. SAN
B. memory
C. backplane
D. DVD drive
E. LAN interfaces
F. mirrored root disks
G. system adminstrator
H. redundant power supply
I. Fibre Channel Host Bus Adapter
Answer: BCEI

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NO.2 When implementing a legacy package utilizing application monitoring, which variable in the package
control script will point to the monitor script?
A. service_cmd
B. SERVICE_CMD
C. MONITOR_CMD
D. MONITOR_NAME
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which products offer a solution to protect from failure of a complete data center? (Select three.)
A. Metrocluster
B. Serviceguard
C. Continentalclusters
D. Extended Campus Cluster
E. Enterprise Cluster Master Toolkit
Answer: ACD

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NO.4 Which statements are true regarding High Availability (HA)? (Select three.)
A. Downtime is any amount of time when the application is unavailable (planned or unplanned).
B. HA systems provide a disaster tolerant solution that allows recovery from the loss of an entire data
center.
C. Unplanned downtime is be caused by a failure of a non-redundant hardware component on a cluster
node.
D. Metrocluster and Extended Campus Cluster solutions provide the same level of protection as a local
HA solution in case of environmental disasters.
E. HA is a combination of environmental, process, software, and computing hardware enhancements that
maximize the time that the application and system are available.
F. Highly available systems typically contain data redundancy through mirroring or RAID, some kind of
backup system hardware, power outage protection, and multiple LANs.
Answer: AEF

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NO.5 What are potential single points of failure (SPOF) in an HP-UX system? (Select four.)
A. hard disk drive
B. operating system
C. system administrator
D. redundant power supply
E. CPU on a Uniprocessor system
F. multi-port network interface card
G. alternate link to a disk in a shared volume group
Answer: ABEF

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NO.6 Which situations does Serviceguard provide high availability solutions for? (Select two.)
A. LAN card failure
B. application failure
C. client subnet goes down
D. poor application performance
E. failure of one of the LUN paths to shared storage
Answer: AB

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NO.7 What are advantages of RAC cluster? (Select three.)
A. increases user scalability
B. increases database security
C. supports larger database size
D. increases hardware scalability
E. increases database availability
F. increases application scalability
G. decreases package failover time
Answer: DEF

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NO.8 Which application templates are included in the Enterprise Cluster Master Toolkit (ECMT)? (Select
four.)
A. NFS
B. SAP
C. SAPDB
D. HP Tomcat
E. HP Apache
F. HP CIFS/9000
G. Oracle 9i and 10g
Answer: DEFG

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NO.9 Which statements are true regarding Serviceguard Manager version 5.01? (Select three.)
A. Serviceguard Manager is a graphical user interface for the Serviceguard product.
B. With Serviceguard Manager you can monitor, administer, and configure clusters managed by
Serviceguard.
C. With Serviceguard Manager you can run a multinode cluster which consists of both HP-UX and Linux
nodes.
D. With Serviceguard Manager you can change package-switching and node-switching flags for failover
packages.
E. With Serviceguard Manager you can install Serviceguard software product on hosts managed by HP
Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM).
Answer: ABD

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NO.10 A customer has a 2-node HP Serviceguard cluster running a mission critical Oracle database and a
financial application. At the end of each month the server utilization spikes with no idle CPU resources
and there is a need for additional capacity.
Which HP Virtual Server Environment offering provides additional capacity and is best in this situation?
A. Capacity Advisor
B. Instant Capacity (iCAP)
C. Integrity Virtual Machines
D. Global Workload Manager (gWLM)
E. Temporary Instant Capacity (TiCAP)
Answer: E

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NO.11 Which configurations are valid for a Serviceguard environment in combination with Integrity Virtual
machines? (Select two.)
A. Configuration 1
B. Configuration 2
C. Configuration 3
D. Configuration 4
Answer: AB

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NO.12 Click the Exhibit button.
Based on the cmviewcl output, which statement is correct?
A. A failure of ora_lsnr will cause alien_pkg to failover.
B. A single failure of oracle9i will cause alien_pkg to failover.
C. The subnet 192.168.1.0 going down will cause alien_pkg to failover.
D. A failure of either ora_lsnr or oracle9i will cause alien_pkg to failover.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which statement is correct concerning the difference between a local Serviceguard cluster and an
extended distance cluster (also known as a campus cluster)?
A. An extended distance cluster provides disaster tolerance across two data centers located on different
continents.
B. An extended distance cluster solution typically requires a physical data replication mechanism between
high end storage arrays.
C. An extended distance cluster solution typically uses host based disk mirroring between two computer
rooms in an IT environment.
D. An extended distance cluster is a separate product installation to implement High Availability between
two computer rooms in a IT environment.
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which failure scenarios are transparent to application users when the application is running as a
Serviceguard package? (Select two.)
A. A LAN interface fails on a node where no package is running.
B. A complete power outage in the computer room where the cluster is located.
C. A redundant power supply fails in the cluster node running the application package.
D. Manual application package switch because of planned downtime on the cluster node.
E. The cluster node running the application package crashes because of a memory multibit error.
Answer: AC

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NO.15 In the context of high availability, which statements are true regarding split-brain syndrome? (Select
two.)
A. It can occur on a 2-node cluster.
B. It can occur on a 3-node cluster.
C. It allows different applications to simulatneously access the same disk.
D. It allows different partitions to access the same disk without knowledge of each other.
E. It is caused when two clusters initiate an application that accesses the same disk simultaneously.
F. It is caused when two equal size sub-clusters form from a single cluster without knowledge of each
other.
Answer: AF

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NO.16 What are the advantages with respect to application availability for a customer using Serviceguard in
an HA environment? (Select two.)
A. Application database corruptions will be minimized.
B. An upgrade of the operating system will only require a package switch.
C. A power outage in the customer's computer room will not affect the users.
D. Rolling upgrades of the application can be performed in a Serviceguard environment.
E. A failure in a redundant power supply will only cause a package switch to the adoptive node.
Answer: BD

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NO.17 In which situations can a local high availability solution prevent unplanned downtime? (Select two.)
A. An operator accidentially reboots a cluster node.
B. The shared storage component looses A/C power and goes down.
C. A complete data center goes down because of an environmental disaster.
D. The network communication between the cluster nodes is permanently interrupted.
E. The clustered application database becomes corrupted by installation of an application patch.
Answer: AD

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NO.18 In a Serviceguard implementation for concurrent instances of an Oracle RAC Database, which type of
shared storage management can be used on all nodes in the cluster? (Select three.)
A. Cluster File System (CFS)
B. Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM)
C. Network Attached Storage (NAS)
D. Shared Logical Volume Manager (SLVM)
E. Standard Logical Volume Manager (LVM)
F. Enterprise Logical Volume Manager (ELVM)
G. Oracle Automatic Storage Management (ASM)
Answer: ADG

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NO.19 What is the purpose of the cluster interconnect in a Serviceguard extension for Oracle RAC
implementation? (Select two.)
A. Nodes can use it for cluster heartbeat traffic.
B. Nodes coordinate the shared storage status.
C. Oracle single instances coordinate their online/offline status.
D. Oracle RAC instances coordinate the consistency between their Oracle buffer cache.
Answer: AD

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NO.20 Consider the following entry in the /etc/rc.config.d/cmcluster file.
AUTOSTART_CMCLD=1
Which parameter in the cluster ascii file is affected by this entry?
A. CMCLD_TIMEOUT
B. CMCLD_RUN_START
C. AUTOSTART_CMCLD
D. AUTOSTART_TIMEOUT
E. HEARTBEAT_INTERVAL
Answer: D

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NO.21 What are potential single points of failure (SPOF) in an HP-UX environment? (Select two.)
A. backplane of a cell based server when two vPARs are clustered with Serviceguard over two physical
nodes
B. backplane of a cell based server when two vPARs are clustered with Serviceguard on the same
physical node
C. cellboard on a partioned node with two nPARs that are clustered with Serviceguard on the same
physical node
D. cellboard on a single-nPar node with two vPARs that are clustered with Serviceguard on the same
physical node
Answer: BD

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NO.22 When a Serviceguard package fails over in a highly available vPar environment, Workload Manager
(WLM) integrates with Serviceguard and disaster tolerant solutions by doing which process?
A. WLM creates a new vPar to assume the load of the failed partition.
B. cmcld creates a new vPar to assume the load of the failed partition.
C. WLM moves processor resources from one virtual partition to another.
D. cmcld moves processor resources from one virtual partition to another.
E. WLM can move a Serviceguard package from one virtual partition to another.
Answer: C

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NO.23 In the context of high availability, which phrase describes Mean Time To Repair (MTTR)?
A. mean interval of time to resume a service after a failure
B. mean time a service engineer needs to repair a failed server
C. mean interval of time when the system provides service without fault
D. mean time a service engineer needs to replace a server after a failure
E. mean time a service engineer needs to arrive at the site of a failed server
Answer: A

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NO.24 An e-ticketing application based on Apache webserver for a busy tourist market experiences failures
during peak season, resulting in loss of revenues.
Which product combination implements a solution that improves availability of the e-ticketing application?
(Select two.)
A. HP Serviceguard
B. Continental Clusters
C. HP Serviceguard Extension for SAP
D. Enterprise Cluster Master Toolkit
E. HP Serviceguard Extension for RAC
Answer: AD

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NO.25 You are asked by your management team to do a presentation and explain why your IT department
should go with the SGeRAC solution instead of the standard single-instance Oracle implementation with
Serviceguard.
Which benefits should you present? (Select two.)
A. reduces the overall cost
B. increases the security level
C. provides easier cluster management
D. reduces recovery time of a large database
E. provides the ability to add more nodes to the cluster on the fly
F. increases processing power without the need to administer separate databases
Answer: DF

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NO.26 In the context of high availability, which phrase describes Mean Time Between Failure (MTBF)?
A. mean time to restart a failed service
B. mean time to repair a server after a failure
C. mean time to restart a server after a failure
D. mean time a system provides service without failure
Answer: D

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NO.27 What are the main features of OL* (OnLine Replacement, Addition, and Deletion)? (Select two.)
A. ability to replace a cell board on an HP-UX system that supports OL*
B. ability to repair a PCI I/O card on an HP-UX system that supports OL*
C. ability to online replace a PCI I/O card on an HP-UX system that supports OL*
D. ability to online remove a PCI(-X) card on an HP-UX system that supports OL*
E. ability to online replace an HP-UX system that supports OL* while it is configured in a Serviceguard
cluster
F. ability to online remove a PCI(-X) LAN card and afterwards to online add a PCI(-X) FC HBA in the same
PCI(-X) slot on an HP-UX system that supports OL*
Answer: CD

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NO.28 What does OL* (OnLine Replacement, Addition, and Deletion) provide?
A. online replacement, addtion, and deletion of vPARs
B. online replacement, addition, and deletion of PCI(-X) I/O cards
C. online replacement, addition, and deletion of cell boards in cell based systems
D. online replacement, addition, and deletion of PCI(-X) I/O cards and core I/O cards
Answer: B

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NO.29 Your customer wants you to design an HA solution with HP-UX and Serviceguard that runs the
customer's Business Critical SAP production system as Serviceguard package, pkgA, and the customer's
Development SAP system as Serviceguard package, pkgB.
You design two vPars (vpar1 and vpar2) on serverA and two vPars (vpar3 and vpar4) on serverB.
What is a good design for this cluster to provide the maximum high availability? (Select two.)
A. Cluster vpar1 and vpar2 and run pkgA on these clustered vPars.
B. Cluster vpar1 and vpar3 and run pkgA on these clustered vPars.
C. Cluster vpar2 and vpar4 and run pkgB on these clustered vPars.
D. Cluster vpar3 and vpar4 and run pkgB on these clustered vPars.
Answer: BC

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NO.30 What is the function of the lock disk or Quorum server in a Serviceguard cluster?
A. prevents split brain syndrome
B. determines which node becomes the cluster coordinator
C. ensures that quorum is present the entire time the cluster is up
D. keeps a record of volume groups that are locked in exclusive mode
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: HP0-A03
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP-UX 11 to 11i v3 Differences)
Questions et réponses: 197 Q&As

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NO.1 What are the key benefits of the 11i v3 Mass Storage Stack? (Select four.)
A. improved security capabilities
B. dramatic I/O performance improvements
C. simplified management and automatic configuration
D. increased scalability (connect up to 16 million devices)
E. choice of load balancing algorithms for native multi-pathing
F. out-of-the-box support for third party active/passive storage arrays
Answer: BCDE

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NO.2 What are the major advantages of the new Mass Storage Stack of HP-UX 11i v3 compared to
previous HP-UX versions? (Select two.)
A. transparent I/O path switch in failure cases
B. Locked Device Special Files to physical hardware path or LUN
C. Agile device files based on LUN world wide ID (WWID) addressing
D. significantly larger number of devices can be connected to a single system
E. moving devices to a different FC switch port requires manual intervention during LVM configuration
Answer: CD

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NO.3 Which feature is new to 11i v3 and is only available on Integrity servers?
A. NUMA
B. ccNUMA
C. concurrent dumps
D. single CPU per socket
Answer: C

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NO.4 You have expanded an existing LUN in your EVA storage. The LUN belongs to an HP-UX 11i v3 LVM
volume group (VG). You want to expand the volume group to reflect the new LUN size. What is the most
efficient way to accomplish this?
A. You cannot expand a physical volume when using LVM.
B. Create another physical volume and extend your current VG.
C. Backup, remove, create and restore the data to reflect the new size.
D. Use the vgmodify command to change the physical volume attributes.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which volume manager is integrated with the Serviceguard Cluster File System (CFS) for HP-UX?
A. Mirrordisk/UX
B. Veritas Volume Replicator
C. TruCluster Volume Manager
D. Veritas Volume Manager/Cluster Volume Manager
E. Logical Volume Manager/Shared Logical Volume Manager
Answer: D

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NO.6 You want to create a mirror of a logical volume using two controllers. Which configuration file is used
to accomplish this?
A. /etc/lvmrc
B. /etc/lvmtab
C. /etc/lvmpvg
D. /etc/dualcontroller
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which options are available on an rx6600 running HP-UX 11i v2 with a PCI-e backplane and P400
PCI-e RAID controller? (Select two.)
A. RAID 1 only
B. RAID 1, RAID 5, RAID ADG
C. RAID 1, RAID 5, RAID 1+0
D. configuration of RAID sets via the scsimgr command
E. configuration of RAID sets via the Array Configuration Utility (ACU)
Answer: BE

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NO.8 A customer wants to migrate to HP-UX 11i v3. The customer has several HP 9000 and Integrity
systems to test on. Which options or systems will support HP-UX 11i v3? (Select two.)
A. L3000 currently running HP-UX 11i v2
B. BL60p currently running HP-UX 11i v2
C. rp3410 currently running HP-UX 11i v2
D. vPar (version A.03.x) on HP 9000 Superdome running HP-UX 11i v1
Answer: BC

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NO.9 You are planning to use 200 VGs in your system. What needs to be done to create the VGs on HP-UX
11i v3?
A. Create the VGs as needed.
B. Change the maxvgs kernel parameter.
C. Change the maxvgs kernel parameter, compile the kernel and reboot.
D. Create the group file using the major number 64 and minor number 0x200000.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which new features of HP-UX 11i v3 potentially increase the overall I/O performance compared to
previous releases of HP-UX 11i? (Select two.)
A. Native Multi-Pathing
B. sx2000 chipset support
C. Agile device addressing
D. Unified File Cache (UFC)
E. Persistent Device Special Files
Answer: AD

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NO.11 What are the benefits of the Serviceguard Storage Management Suite on HP-UX 11i v3? (Select
three.)
A. enables Oracle ASM to run within a file system
B. maintains service levels through the integration with VSE
C. offers tighter integration of Veritas Cluster Server on HP-UX
D. allows for heterogeneous platform support with a single solution
E. enables Oracle RAC customers to get the manageability of a file system
F. provides a single storage management solution to manage all applications
Answer: BEF

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NO.12 Which vPar feature is new on HP-UX 11i v3?
A. shared I/O
B. CPU granularity
C. dynamic migration of I/O
D. dynamic migration of memory
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which Serviceguard Storage Management Suite feature allows you to set policies that segment
company data based on various characteristics?
A. Flashsnap
B. Storage Mapping
C. Storage Checkpoints
D. Dynamic Multi-Pathing
E. Dynamic Storage Tiers
Answer: E

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NO.14 Identify the characteristics of the Memory File System (MemFS). (Select two.)
A. based on the HFS filesystem
B. based on the VxFS filesystem
C. supports files and filesystems as large as 2 TB
D. swaps data to swap space when the system is under memory pressure
E. data in MemFS filesystem remains persistent after unmounts and reboots
Answer: AD

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NO.15 Which LVM command allows dynamic size expansion of LUNs?
A. vgmove
B. vgmodify
C. vgextend
D. vgchange
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which benefit does the Cluster File System (CFS) feature of the Serviceguard Storage Management
Suite provide?
A. application failover from the active to standby server
B. file system failover from the active to standby server
C. load balancing across multiple paths from server to disk
D. multiple servers can concurrently read/write to the same file system
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which benefits do Concurrent Crash Dumps provide to Integrity servers running HP-UX 11i v3? (Select
three.)
A. faster crash dump
B. parallel dump units
C. vertical dump units
D. slower crash dump
E. multiple processors
F. no rebooting required
Answer: ABE

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NO.18 Which features are enabled by the HP-UX WBEM (Web-Based Enterprise Management) provider
instrumentation? (Select three.)
A. HP-UX Software Assistant capabilities
B. HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM) inventory reports
C. HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM) user configuration
D. Management processor display of health of the server it is managing
E. HP Systems Management Homepage (SMH) display of component health
F. HP SIM and SMH display of system health and properties G. HP System Management Homepage
(SMH) configuration snapshots and inventory reports
Answer: BEF

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NO.19 What does the Oracle Disk Manager provide?
A. data migration from HP9000 to HP Integrity
B. online volume expansion for additional storage space
C. near raw performance for managing your file system data
D. a graphical user interface to monitor, administer and configure the database
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which HP-UX 11i v3 command allows SCSI device management and diagnoses?
A. ioinit
B. iofind
C. scsiutil
D. scsimgr
Answer: D

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